Paul is NOT talking about some transition from being a gentile to something else.He is simply talking about their previous state of being idol worshipers.
He associates "gentile" with bad behavior, saying that they need to not be like that anymore. Yes, he was saying there was a transition to something better than being an idol worshiper. If "gentile" means "idol worshiper", surely you aren't suggesting Paul was saying they were welcome to stay in that state, are you? And if they are now not idol worshipers, and thus not "gentiles" by that definition, what are they? Are they not worshipers of God? Isn't that another word for people of God? And "people of God" is an obvious antonym for "idol worshipers".
Peter, just like Jesus, was gathering the REMNANT of Israel. Israel has had many times throughout their history where they have fallen away and needed to be restored. There was a period of about four hundred years where God was silent with them before John the B came along.
So I think you're saying that Peter was making an unsuccessful attempt to gather the remnant of Israel. But his letter doesn't seem to talk of gathering. It appears to be an exhortation to do good things. If there is a "gathering", as you say, it is a spiritual gathering only.
[1Pe 2:13 KJV] Submit yourselves to every ordinance of man for the Lord's sake: whether it be to the king, as supreme;
[1Pe 2:18 KJV] Servants, [be] subject to [your] masters with all fear; not only to the good and gentle, but also to the froward.
And this verse points out that the gathering is already accomplished:
[1Pe 2:25 KJV] For ye were as sheep going astray; but are now returned unto the Shepherd and Bishop of your souls.
You need to be very careful when you read Paul quoting OT scripture, as he often does so to teach a spiritual lesson and not necessarily to have the exact same meaning as the original. A really good example of this is Romans 8:36. Paul is quoting Psalm 44:22 to which he says NAY. He is quoting it and says NO, we are NOT sheep accounted for slaughter. It is the single, solitary time that Paul uses the word 'sheep' in ALL of his epistles.
We all need to be careful what message we try to pour into the bible. Let's look at the passage in context.
[Rom 8:35 KJV] Who shall separate us from the love of Christ? [shall] tribulation, or distress, or persecution, or famine, or nakedness, or peril, or sword?
[Rom 8:36 KJV] As it is written, For thy sake we are killed all the day long; we are accounted as sheep for the slaughter.
[Rom 8:37 KJV] Nay, in all these things we are more than conquerors through him that loved us.
[Rom 8:38 KJV] For I am persuaded, that neither death, nor life, nor angels, nor principalities, nor powers, nor things present, nor things to come,
[Rom 8:39 KJV] Nor height, nor depth, nor any other creature, shall be able to separate us from the love of God, which is in Christ Jesus our Lord.
Paul asks "who shall separate us from the love of Christ", and then he lists a bunch of "whats", not "whos". These are the tools God's enemies can use against believers. Can they be successful against believers? Depends on what you mean by "successful". Yes, they can cause pain and hardship and death. Are you saying that's not the case? Is that what "Nay" means? I'd have to disagree. Paul follows up with a list of things that have no power to separate us from Christ's love: death, life, angels, principalities, powers, .... None of these things can separate us from the love of Christ, but these things
can come against us.
Whether Paul was counting all of the church or just some in a separate category with himself, as sheep led to the slaughter, you can judge. But I'd rather keep the sheep-to-slaughter reference than lose the "Nothing can separate us" conclusion, since those two obviously go together, describing the same group.
The entire point of the passage from 2 Cor 16:14-18 is expressed in 2 Cor 16:14
2Co 6:14 KJV Be ye not unequally yoked together with unbelievers: for what fellowship hath righteousness with unrighteousness? and what communion hath light with darkness?
And?
Once again, he is using OT scripture to teach a spiritual lesson and NOT as a literal parallel.
Once again.... a spiritual lesson and not a literal parallel.
You sound like a Calvinist, saying the scripture doesn't really say what it is saying. That's what happens when a system takes precedence over the actual scripture. I hope that's not happening to you.
That is a bogus translation. Paul NEVER uses the word priest in any of his epistles.
Quite a few translators disagree with you.
Strong's, which you've used authoritatively, does too:
Strong’s Definitions
ἱερουργέω hierourgéō, hee-er-oorg-eh'-o; from a compound of G2411 and the base of G2041; to be a temple-worker, i.e. officiate as a priest (figuratively):—minister. |
The kingdom has not been established yet and will not be until the King returns to sit on His throne in the kingdom.
Luk 19:11-12 KJV And as they heard these things, he added and spake a parable, because he was nigh to Jerusalem, and because they thought that the kingdom of God should immediately appear. (12) He said therefore, A certain nobleman went into a far country to receive for himself a kingdom, and to return.
Mat 25:31-34 KJV When the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy angels with him, then shall he sit upon the throne of his glory: (32) And before him shall be gathered all nations: and he shall separate them one from another, as a shepherd divideth his sheep from the goats: (33) And he shall set the sheep on his right hand, but the goats on the left. (34) Then shall the King say unto them on his right hand, Come, ye blessed of my Father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world:
There is an earthly kingdom and there is a heavenly kingdom. The earthly kingdom is what the gospel of the kingdom is about. They will one day be joined together.
Then you must admit that sometimes it is difficult to understand which kingdom is being spoken of. And to say that Peter was only concerned about the earthly kingdom is probably quite short-sighted--as Peter was at one time, but didn't remain so. Why would we want to go back to what Peter originally thought?
This is not to say there is no earthly kingdom! I agree with you that there is a spiritual and an earthly kingdom, and I think Christ will sit on a physical throne on earth some day. I think we do ourselves and the Jewish people a disservice when we relegate them to a different kingdom than ours, or think of them as not meant to be part of the church. Such was not Christ's intent.
Paul uses different language to describe the body of Christ. There is reason for that, but you are stubborn.
Of course there's a reason for it. I gave a reason for it. Mine might be the wrong reason, but so might yours. I'll be stubborn on it until there's reasonable evidence for your reason. So far, I haven't seen it. But you can keep trying.
Their ministry was different. They knew nothing of the unique revelation given to Paul until Paul went to Jerusalem ~17 years later to explain it to them.
And some of them still struggled with it, I agree. But both parties (Jerusalem church made up of Jews and the other churches made up of mostly, but not all, non-Jews) accepted each other as part of the same body of Christ. This is evident in numerous ways, including that Paul, a Jew, was actually there in Jerusalem, as you pointed out, speaking for non-Jews, and that the result of his visit was a recognition of the gentile churches as being "in the club" whatever you decide to call "the club". Was that club called "the kingdom of God/heaven" or was it called "the body of Christ"? I'd say the answer is "yes".
Israel had more than one priesthood. Perhaps you should learn more about it.
I'm not so stubborn I can't be taught. Teach me, o great one.
Prophecy described God's blessings to the gentiles through Israel's RISE and not their FALL. But Paul tells us that the gentiles receive salvation through Israel's FALL.
That is part of the mystery of Christ that was kept secret since the world began.
Ok. I get that. But how does that mean that Peter was only talking about the earthly kingdom?
And how is it that His enemies are being put under his feet while He is sitting at God's right hand?
[Psalm 110:1] The LORD said to my Lord: "Sit at My right hand until I make Your enemies a footstool for Your feet." Who's in charge? Is there not a kingdom during this time? 1 Cor 15 says it a little different:
[1Co 15:25 KJV] For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet.
So Christ is reigning...while He is waiting to reign, as explained here:
[1Co 15:27 KJV] For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under [him, it is] manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him.