Obviously not Jesus Christ, but the "he" in the verses is the one who rules with a rod of iron.
The "he" in the verse is collective singular.
(Rev 2:29 KJV) He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches.
Obviously not Jesus Christ, but the "he" in the verses is the one who rules with a rod of iron.
The "he" in the verse is collective singular.
(Rev 2:29 KJV) He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches.
I agree, it's a group of people.
They are called "he", and they rule with a rod of iron. As in verse 12.
They rule with Christ Jesus (the man child)
It's why the group of people are referred to as the woman's "rest of her offspring" in verse 17
That's not what it says.
Yes it does.
Who were the woman's other offspring?
The point of this endless arguing is this,
the man child is this "he":
Rev 2
26 And he that overcometh, and keepeth my works unto the end, to him will I give power over the nations:
27 And he shall rule them with a rod of iron; as the vessels of a potter shall they be broken to shivers: even as I received of my Father.
No you're wrong
It's man child (singular) and the womans other offspring
You're wrong,
Rev 2
26 And he that overcometh, and keepeth my works unto the end, to him will I give power over the nations:
27 And he shall rule them with a rod of iron; as the vessels of a potter shall they be broken to shivers: even as I received of my Father.
Get on your mark, get set, . . . Go!!
The woman has a man child (one person, singular), and then has other offspring.
Verses 26 and 27 speak of the "other offspring", not the one man child.
The woman has a man child (one person, singular), and then has other offspring.
Verses 26 and 27 speak of the "other offspring", not the one man child.
Does it not read: "HE who overcomes"? "HE" who of his crowd, He of the multitude He may even call brothers, "HE" who overcomes will I give . . . . ." The Man-child is all the "HE's" in the nominal church!
Impossible.
Mary was never clothed as such.
How could the woman have "other offspring" if the man child and the "he" are the same?
All the "he's" above are in lower case in the KJV, so those "he's" don't refer to Christ Jesus. It is a collective singular that refers to the woman's "other offspring".
The man child is a singular person, it refers to Christ Jesus.
It doesn't fit!!!!!!
End of discussion.
Anyone else have credible understanding?