But you are then saying that morality exists through commands?!Disobedience is a moral failure. For the Law of God is moral.
Unless one is not given any commands (laws) to obey. Then all that exists is amoral anarchy or nihilism.
But you are then saying that morality exists through commands?!Disobedience is a moral failure. For the Law of God is moral.
Unless one is not given any commands (laws) to obey. Then all that exists is amoral anarchy or nihilism.
No one for Adam to commit adultery with.
However, unfaithfulness to God and God's Word is often called spiritual adultery in the Bible.
So in effect, when Adam listened to the devil's words rather than obeying God's Words, Adam committed spiritual adultery with Satan.
(Another of the Ten Commandments violated, indeed!)
Which ended all fellowship between God and Adam.
Romans 3:19 Now we know that whatever the Law says, it speaks to those who are under the Law, so that every mouth may be closed and all the world may become accountable to God;Do not limit human obligations to God's Law to the Jewish race.
Not the Mosaic law. Where in the Bible is law refered to before Moses?The law has existed since creation.
Yes, that much is true.Adam was created and given commands from God.
heresy?All persons are born with a consciousness of right and wrong, due to Adam partaking of the tree of knowledge of good and evil.
Please provide a verse.All persons have the natural laws of creation written on their hearts.
I'm not saying anyone is allowed to sin against God.So no man has any excuse for sinning against God.
What about the verse STP quoted? You are talking about God's Law with God's people. It came through the prophet Moses to the people of Israel.It is a fallacy to believe that the Law did not arrive until God gave it to the nation of Israel through Moses.
NOPE!Multitudes died in their sins before the time of the Jewish nation. Why? Because they were held in bondage to the law
Your contrived covenant.according to the original Covenant of Works made with Adam.
Romans 5:12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned—Because they sinned, and were held guilty for their sins under the laws of God.
Now you are saying your Covenant of Works is the result of the fall??? I thought you said the covenant was the commands which you call law!All people are born and remain under the Covenant of Works on this earth, due to the sin of Adam,
The only escape from a covenant of works is a covenant of grace???and the only escape is by the grace of God.
Romans 4:14 For if those who are of the Law are heirs, faith is made void and the promise is nullified;Only those ransomed and transferred from under the Covenant of Works (Law) into a Covenant of Grace through faith in Jesus Christ are freed from the bondage of sin.
Can a person change from one covenant to the other in your view? If there even is a Covenant of Works (how are you defining this again?).Every single person that has ever lived on this earth, has lived under either one covenant or the other. Does not matter when they lived, or what their nationality was.
One is either serving a death sentence for failing to keep the Covenant of Works (Law)Do you mean through Adam or Moses? You have a screwy view of Romans.Freedom from the law is the desire for anarcy and the divorce of personal responsibility. There are things you cannot be freed from through the Law, but that does not make the Law a cause for death. Rather it is sin (which is not the law (Romans 2:12)). Rather you should be preaching freedom from sin (Biblical). What do you think? Is the law a curse to you or do you see God's plan for you through the law? Jesus Christ.or one is pardoned and freed under the Covenant of Grace by the power of God.
This could not be more straight-forward and truthful, for it is the subject of the entire Bible.
Nang
When she said commandments I was thinking maybe she is including to be fruitful and multiply, but you are talking before the fall?!Not taking the fruit was the only commandment we see in scripture given to Adam and Eve. One commandment.
Some believe people are saved by keeping the Law.
Galatians 3:23 But before faith came, we were kept in custody under the law, being shut up to the faith which was later to be revealed.
So when did grace come in?
So how is a person saved?
Is it the same before Christ as after?
What conditions are there with grace?
I see the situation with Adam and Eve as God being in covenant with Adam and Eve, and giving them instruction. They certainly transgressed the commandment of God. The question you are flirting with is if God had planned salvation in Christ before Adam and Eve sinned.
I hope you don't say that God caused Adam and Eve to sin.
I view Law as instruction, and perhaps in another way a body of commands. Of course God's commands began with Adam, but don't they continue with us? Grace does not mean God's instructions cease. We aren't exempt from sin because of God's grace. We still must be obedient even as Christ was obedient to the point of death on a cross.I understand this to be your perspective.
But it sounds like you are adding Law to Law instead of just adding Law. The Law came in. It (God's commands through Moses) were not there previously. Some supposed that even the sabbath commandment was there in the garden. But you have to read all of what Paul wrote. The Law was not there previous to Moses.Hmm. Two covenants huh? I know there are more than that.
But when you say old covenant you have to mean the Law in Moses. You can't mean Works in Adam.
Works isn't even an issue without the Law (in Moses).
My view of your position is that Grace was not there until Jesus, or is not there apart from Jesus (maybe to include those who died in Christ before Christ?).
You don't see salvation in lawkeeping because Paul points out salvation is not of works.
But, do you call even before the old covenant (Moses) "the old covenant" (ADAM????), simply because Genesis is a part of what is called the "old testament" in terms of literature and the Hebrew Bible (TaNaK)?
It sounds like a defense system for corrupted theology, responsive to the world and protective of God.
When she said commandments I was thinking maybe she is including to be fruitful and multiply, but you are talking before the fall?!
Not taking the fruit was the only commandment we see in scripture given to Adam and Eve. One commandment.
I'm not sure.No soul has ever been saved by keeping the Law. Being kept "in custody under the law" is not salvation, but being kept for the gift of faith from God that is salvation according to grace, alone.
The first promise of grace (gospel message) was given to Eve in Genesis 3:15.
Each individual is responsible for their own sin. Are we responsible for Adam's?By the grace of God, alone.
Yes. All the O.T. saints were saved by the grace of God.
None. Grace is the free gift of God.
I am not "flirting" with it, but absolutely believe God planned salvation in Christ before A&E sinned . . . in fact, I believe God planned salvation in Christ before He created the world. (Ephesians 1:3-4)
I do not. Adam is held solely responsible for sin and death. (Romans 5:12)
Again, I don't know what you mean by Covenant of Works. The words are not found in the Bible, where we learn about the covenants.It is my perspective, but a Christian's obedience to God's Word and Law is exhibited under a new Covenant of Grace and motivated by thankfulness, love, and gratitude towards Father, Son, and Holy Spirit who worked their salvation.
That is much different that being held responsible and accountable to obey God under a Covenant of Works . . . which no sinner can or will keep.
Which Bible verse is that?There is one Everlasting Covenant which is between Father and Son in heaven;
It sounds like you are saying God gave people a way to be saved that they couldn't be saved by. I'm arguing that this is not the case.that purposes, ordains, and accomplished all the good will and intent of God in this creation. This Covenant has ordained all the earthly covenants God has made with mankind.
First there is the original Covenant of Works, under which all men were created (in Adam) and held morally responsible and accountable before God.
And then, because no man has ever succeeded in keeping the Covenant of Works,
Says who? With what authority? Where is this found in scripture?God sent His Son in flesh, to successfully perform that very covenant and establish a new Covenant of Grace.
There are many other covenants revealed in Holy Scripture, but they are all meant to (progressively through time) reveal and teach these two contrasting covenants.
No, it isn't the same. God gives individuals commands to observe, and they aren't all the same throughout time. But, for the nation of Israel, He gave the Law.Same covenant, same Law, different administration (Moses vs Adam), progressive revelation of both.
No, they aren't synonymous, else we wouldn't have "works of the Law". <-- Link.Indeed. And Law demands works of obedience. Works and Law are synonymous.
I know there were promises. I haven't said that they were all covenants. Maybe you can reference the covenants of promise.Before Christ, the Covenant of Grace was revealed in covenants of promise of the Savior.
No. I've already told you. The only covenant called "old" is in Moses. Read the passage in Hebrews again. This is the specific covenant that is referenced. You want to extend Moses to Adam.All of the O.T. believers were saved by the grace of God by the gift of faith in the promises of God.
Correct.
The Covenant of Works (Law) is called "old" in Scripture, because it preceded the Covenant of Grace in time. The promises of a Savior (grace) were given after and as a result of the fall (Adam breaking covenant with God).
That may be true, but this doesn't mean the covenant in Adam is the same as your conceived works based covenant in Moses. The prophet Moses did not bring a message about salvation through works... and yet you want to extrapolate one and place the burden of your idea upon Adam because he was the first one to break covenant with God. The issue of sin is more fundamental that that of works and law, but you want to talk first about how a hypothesized Covenant of Works is lacking. I haven't said you obtain salvation through works. You are saying God did give a covenant of works, by which no man could be saved. Am I right? What kind of a covenant is that? Especially when it has no scriptural basis.The "new" Covenant of Grace is God's redemption of sinners affected by the original sin and covenant-breaking of Adam.
Why do you speak of a Covenant of Grace? Why not speak of the New Covenant? If they are synonymous why rename it except to fit your "'gospel' presentation"?The Covenant of Grace is unconditional and not contingent upon the actions ("works") of men at all, for Jesus Christ has performed ALL of this covenant on behalf of His children.
If the Covenant of Grace (in your view) is the New Covenant, then you must be mistaken. For, the faith of Romans 3:31 is the faith of Abraham which is before the new covenant. You are adding a work, needing to be under the Covenant of Grace, to the gospel. Faith came before the law. The law came as the result of faith. People who obeyed God's law obeyed God because by faith they were accepting the word (instruction) of God. In Romans 3:31 do we see this or do we see post-Christ faith and the reestablishment of law in our lives and in society?And faith exhibited by those spiritually positioned under the Covenant of Grace, actually establishes the Law. Romans 3:31
I don't know what you mean by Covenant Theology. If what you are presenting is Covenant Theology, then my question is is it always presented in light of these two covenants as so named? And, why do you speak of "early church fathers"? Are they to be adhered to in practice? And, are you borrowing their terminology (do you have proof of what you have just said)?Covenant Theology was held and taught by the early church fathers, and is quite valid.
You are contrasting covenant theology with post-modernism? There are many theological views, but are you saying covenant theology is modern? Or, are you just saying your view has solid footing and does not waver compared with other competing views that you have observed?And of course, it is totally scriptural, and not speculative like many of the post-modern religious theories that abound.
Nang
???This can't be a moral command, because God told every living creature to be fruitful and multiply.
After the fall we see one of the consequences of taking the fruit; moral discernment (the knowledge of good and evil).
I really don't see how that doesn't support MAD.It's not like it is just the NIV that does not support the MAD view. Here are some other versions of the same verse that disagree with MAD
Youngs
(Gal 2:7 YLT) but, on the contrary, having seen that I have been entrusted with the good news of the uncircumcision, as Peter with [that] of the circumcision,
It's the new NIV. Same as the old NIV.Today’s New International Version
On the contrary, they saw that I had been entrusted with the task of preaching the gospel to the Gentiles, just as Peter had been to the Jews.
Take out the brackets, and everything in them, and what do you have?Amplified
But on the contrary, when they [really] saw that I had been entrusted [to carry] the Gospel to the uncircumcised [Gentiles, just as definitely] as Peter had been entrusted [to proclaim] the Gospel to the circumcised [Jews, they were agreeable];
It's sad that you think any of this actually matters. Who cares what different interpretations say? The issue is what the original says. And translations that agree with it are true. Those that do not are false.New Living Translation
Instead, they saw that God had given me the responsibility of preaching the gospel to the Gentiles, just as he had given Peter the responsibility of preaching to the Jews.
Contemporary English Version
They realized that God had sent me with the good news for Gentiles, and that he had sent Peter with the same message for Jews.
God’s Word Translation
In fact, they saw that I had been entrusted with telling the Good News to people who are not circumcised as Peter had been entrusted to tell it to those who are circumcised.
New International Readers Version
In fact, it was just the opposite. They saw that I had been trusted with the task of preaching the good news just as Peter had been. My task was to preach to the non-Jews. Peter's task was to preach to the Jews.
Worldwide English (New Testament)
No, the leaders saw that God called me to take the good news to those who are not circumcised [not Jews], just as he called Peter to take the good news to those who are circumcised [Jews].
So.....unless you're interested in becoming a King James Onlyist, it appears that only the MADists claim this verse speaks of two different gospels.
But you are then saying that morality exists through commands?!
The issue of sin is more fundamental that that of works and law
Why do you speak of a Covenant of Grace? Why not speak of the New Covenant?
the faith of Romans 3:31 is the faith of Abraham which is before the new covenant.
You are sending mixed messages, and I can't tell the distinction in what you are saying. My statement comes from the fact that death reigned because of sin before the law came, which is exactly what Paul says. Even those without the law perish because of sin (Romans 2:12). You have yet to respond to this. You just keep saying what you are saying as much as I explain how you are wrong according to scripture. A "Covenant of Works" in Adam does not exist in the Bible. I assume you have a definition for what this would mean, but the words are not found in scripture. This is the work of theologians, not the work of God's word revealed through scripture.No it isn't.
What do you believe is the "issue of sin" if not those creaturely works which fail to measure up to God's holy and moral standards?
"Willing to deny"? No, it is grace alright. Otherwise grace is no longer grace. But you are contrasting God's grace with works saying works was there (a valid covenant, way of salvation) with Adam... that he never had a chance. I'm saying we have always had a chance to be obedient, and that it has always been by grace that we have had this chance. Fact is, we have all been disobedient. Romans 11:32 For God has shut up all in disobedience so that He may show mercy to all.Same thing. Are you willing to deny that the "new covenant" established by Jesus Christ is not one of divine grace?
Paul is pointing out that Abraham was before the Law, which is my point. The law does not nullify a previous covenant, in Abraham. Some think the law canceled out faith. That is not true at all. Rather faith is the foundation of law.Almost correct . . . The faith of Abraham came to him as a gift of grace from God through belief in God's Word and Promises. Thus, Abraham was rescued and ransomed out from under the bondage of Law (Covenant of Works)
Again, this is the work of theologians. The scriptures do not say "Covenant of Grace" at all. Theologians debate about what Genesis 3:15 means. Why read an idea back into scripture. Rather read the scripture and seek an explanation from God. But not one that convolutes the gospel.and was brought into union with Truine God through the Covenant of Grace. This did occur before the manifestation and full exhibition of the new Covenant revealed in the Person of Jesus Christ.
However, the Covenant of Grace has existed since the promises were made by God to Eve in Genesis 3:15.
Again, you are saying the old covenant is in Adam. Look at Hebrews. Have you done so yet? What does the passage say the old covenant is? Confirm to me that when you read the passage, where the author is quoting Jeremiah, you see the covenant in Moses. If you do not comment then I assume you are just going back to your erroneous theological training.The reason it is declared "new" in Scripture, is because it is contrasted with the "old" and original Covenant of Works ( Law) and only fully manifested in the incarnation of Jesus Christ.
It sounds like you are looking for themes and calling them covenants. That is poor work with scripture. The covenants... why do you call them two with names Works and Grace? Why do you find them both in Genesis when the new covenant was not spoken of until after the old covenant came (Moses) (post Genesis). Again, this is according to Paul.The exclusive and sole gospel message has always been a message of grace; founded on the Covenant of Grace, and never based upon conditional human "works" under the Law. (The "old" Covenant of Works.)
I'm asking for sound theology. You giving me a theological fairytale rather than pure scripture. If you can't recognize what the Bible says for what the Bible says, and have to find your own themes to read back into scripture, then what else can I say than read the Bible and that your theologians have led you astray from what the Bible says?!I am simply offering different theological language than most here have heard. I realize such biblical and sound theology is hardly ever preached or heard these days, from the pulpits of the visible churches.
So be it . . .let those who have ears, hear.
Nang
Here Paul speaks about the gospel which he preached among the Gentiles:There is no difference between the gospel given to Peter or the gospel given to Paul.
The Lord's choosing those who He saves is determined by His foreknowledge:Notice, nothing at all about freewill choice of men ! Its about God's choosing and His Sovereignty, this is scriptural Gospel preaching !
His mercy comes to all who believe. The Lord's choosing those who He saves is determined by His foreknowledge:15For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion