Yes he did. 2 Thess 2:4 hasn't happened yet.
2 Thess 2:4 already happened.
(2 Thess 2:6) And now you know what is holding him back, so that he may be revealed at the proper time.
Paul wrote to the Thessalonians a few years before 66AD.
Yes he did. 2 Thess 2:4 hasn't happened yet.
This is another lie made up by MADists. Peter didn't resist going to Cornelius' house like you MADists claim.
Here are Peter's own words about it:
(Acts 10:29) So when I was sent for, I came without raising any objection. May I ask why you sent for me?
Peter said it was unlawful for him to even darken Cornelius' door but went because God's sheet vision showed him not to consider Gentiles unclean, and that was a brand new thought for Peter. It was a whole paradigm shift that he still did not understand. Nor did Peter yet know why he was there. So much for the myth of Peter knowing his commission was to preach Paul's Gospel in which there is no distinction between Jew and Gentile. LATER Peter realized that...but at this point in Acts? Not yet.Ye [Gentiles] know how that it is an unlawful thing for a man that is a Jew to keep company, or come unto one of another nation; but God hath shewed me that I should not call any man common or unclean. Therefore came I without gainsaying, as soon as I was sent for: I ask therefore for what intent ye have sent for me?
The man who stood up before all Israel on Pentecost and indicted the Pharisees for murder? I don't think so.Peter was afraid of the Pharisees.
Peter said it was unlawful for him to keep company. Did he lie?God never forbid Israelites and/or Jews from entering the house of a Gentile.
1. Peter and the others did not preach to Gentiles outside of Israel. Period.
Peter said it was unlawful for him to keep company. Did he lie?
What does that tell you about what Peter believed when he first knocked on Cornelius' door?
(2 Thess 2:3) 3 Don’t let anyone deceive you in any way, for that day will not come until the rebellion occurs and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the man doomed to destruction.
The "rebellion" above that Paul spoke about was The Great Jewish Revolt that began in 66AD.
In the verse, Paul uses the Greek word "APOSTASIA". This is the exact same Greek word Josephus used to describe The Great Jewish Revolt that began in 66AD.
Couldn't have said it better myself
Mad is a gnostic country club. Nothing more.
heheheh I laugh at the example there.
But I'm not sure it's not close to right. I've never found a M.A.D. theologian that could have the chat with me. I get them in places they have no answers for and they start to freak out.
fdCuWzlM5E8 | |
Musterion,
You claim SO MAD in your profile.
I can prove to you that you aren't a scriptural respecting theologian. I only need to ask you a few questions.
You select the scripture you wish to claim is relevant, and omit anything else. I can show you with the scriptural authors you accept even.
if you ever find yourself bored, please look me up, thread or PM I don't care. I just like the chats so I can learn.
I like you already Doc.
So, does OT prophecy have anything to do with M.A.D. theology?
Not sure I understand your objection.
Where do you see any MAD, anywhere, placing any distinction between Jews and Gentiles today ('today' meaning 'in the last 2,000 years')? Cite evidence, please.
Is Christ the Messiah?
I'll answer you when you answer me.
M.A.D., to my understanding considers the scriptures addressing the Jews to not apply to them. That's a pretty big distinction, no?
I see where this is going
Cite an example and we'll go from there.