What does 'Thou shalt not commit adultery' mean?

[Sonnet]

I don't follow. Why doesn't this work if men can have multiple wives?

http://theologyonline.com/showthrea...dultery-mean&p=4835088&viewfull=1#post4835088

 

[Sonnet]

David was not the first or only man to have more than one wife and Bathsheba's husband was dead. She was not married. Neither David nor Bathsheba committed adultery according to the law at that time.

2 Sam 11
4b She came to him, and he slept with her. (Now she was purifying herself from her monthly uncleanness.) Then she went back home. 5 The woman conceived and sent word to David, saying, “I am pregnant.”

6 So David sent this word to Joab: “Send me Uriah the Hittite.”

 

[Sonnet]

I'll repeat, "David didn't commit adultery according to the law of the land in his day."

God's very first instruction to Adam was to be fruitful and increase. A king could afford to have more than one wife in David's day and time.

David was not the first or only man to have more than one wife and Bathsheba's husband was dead. She was not married. Neither David nor Bathsheba committed adultery according to the law at that time.

A man could have more than one wife but a woman could only have one husband at a time.

In the NT a man could not serve in an ordained office if he had more than one wife.

Times change.

So polygyny, today, is okay but polyandry is never okay?

Thou shalt not commit adultery but Solomon - have 700 wives and 300 concubines?

 

[Sonnet]

Matthew 19:9
"I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery."

In God's eyes - regarding the case where the divorce is for anything other than sexual immorality - what does He consider the status of the first marriage to be:

1) Extant
2) Dissolved
3) Other

?

 

[Sonnet]

That quote references land, goods and other things, why do you assume it means wives when God already said for a man not to multiply wives to Himself? It makes no sense to interpret it that way by its own context, it merely says that God would have increased Him even more, if he would have obeyed God.

Not only did David commit adultery with Bathsheba, he broke this one as well:

Exodus 20:17 You shall not covet your neighbor's house. You shall not covet your neighbor's wife, or his male or female servant, his ox or donkey, or anything that belongs to your neighbor.

Deut 17
16 The king, moreover, must not acquire great numbers of horses for himself or make the people return to Egypt to get more of them, for the Lord has told you, “You are not to go back that way again.” 17 He must not take many wives, or his heart will be led astray. He must not accumulate large amounts of silver and gold.

This allows for a limited number of wives - just as it allows for a limited number of horses.

This leaves 'adultery' seemingly bereft of meaning.

 

[Sonnet]

Thou shall not cheat on your wife.

Which would mean that David was a serial adulterer. But:

1 King 15
5 For David had done what was right in the eyes of the Lord and had not failed to keep any of the Lord’s commands all the days of his life—except in the case of Uriah the Hittite.

 

[Nick M]

Thou shalt not commit adultery but Solomon - have 700 wives and 300 concubines?

And Israel paid the price.

 

[Sonnet]

Notable Fact: Because the Bible does not "condemn or address' Matriarchal Polygamy, it can be assumed that God is ok with an individual marrying multiple spouses.

Romans 7
3 So then, if she has sexual relations with another man while her husband is still alive, she is called an adulteress. But if her husband dies, she is released from that law and is not an adulteress if she marries another man.

Regarding emboldened - surely the clear implication is that she IS an adulteress if she does marry again whilst still being married?

 

[Sonnet]

Is that commandment to the the kings only or everyone?

http://theologyonline.com/showthrea...dultery-mean&p=4835513&viewfull=1#post4835513

 

[Evil.Eye.<(I)>]

Romans 7
3 So then, if she has sexual relations with another man while her husband is still alive, she is called an adulteress. But if her husband dies, she is released from that law and is not an adulteress if she marries another man.

Regarding emboldened - surely the clear implication is that she IS an adulteress if she does marry again whilst still being married?

Agreed. It indeed appears that polygamy was removed from the table for both men and women. However, it was indeed on the table in the people's Pre-Christ standards.

Paul's words that there is neither male nor female... and so on... would indeed cap off the Pandora's box of polygamy.

Does this now bring the discussion to a pre Christ focus?

Or is it a focus on the Patriarchal polygamy, biblical misaginistic overtones, or the fact that much of Christian society has difficulty reconciling the law with the fact that divorce can be a necessary part of life?

Adultry occurs within our hearts and sometimes we as people act on it, and sometimes we don't.

The Law of Moses has no mercy for realistic dealings with life. If it were followed to the letter, people would get stoned and women would be mere property. Slavery would be a natural part of life and society would crumble into barbarism that is best observed in middle eastern culture.

Perhaps I could be evil and ask for your reasonable social opinion on a matter.

Do you believe humanity functions better in polyamory or monogamy?

One other gem of a question, did God ever personally smite an individual for the specific act of Adultry?

 

[Sonnet]

Agreed. It indeed appears that polygamy was removed from the table for both men and women. However, it was indeed on the table in the people's Pre-Christ standards.

Paul's words that there is neither male nor female... and so on... would indeed cap off the Pandora's box of polygamy.

Does this now bring the discussion to a pre Christ focus?

I think so.

Or is it a focus on the Patriarchal polygamy, biblical misaginistic overtones, or the fact that much of Christian society has difficulty reconciling the law with the fact that divorce can be a necessary part of life?

Would you explain this a little please?

Adultry occurs within our hearts and sometimes we as people act on it, and sometimes we don't.

The Law of Moses has no mercy for realistic dealings with life. If it were followed to the letter, people would get stoned and women would be mere property. Slavery would be a natural part of life and society would crumble into barbarism that is best observed in middle eastern culture.

Indeed - as Paul said - that nobody would be justified through the law.

Perhaps I could be evil and ask for your reasonable social opinion on a matter.

Do you believe humanity functions better in polyamory or monogamy?

Monogamy.

It may yet be the case that polygamy was a least worse, solicitous response to a female population imbalance.

One other gem of a question, did God ever personally smite an individual for the specific act of Adultry?

I don't believe so.

 

[Angel4Truth]

Deut 17
16 The king, moreover, must not acquire great numbers of horses for himself or make the people return to Egypt to get more of them, for the Lord has told you, “You are not to go back that way again.” 17 He must not take many wives, or his heart will be led astray. He must not accumulate large amounts of silver and gold.

This allows for a limited number of wives - just as it allows for a limited number of horses.

This leaves 'adultery' seemingly bereft of meaning.

Incorrect, wives are given to later kings for treaties and inherited, those were the only allowances.

The rendering you use there is not correct, it literally says not to multiply them to themselves.

17 He shall not multiply wives for himself, or else his heart will turn away; nor shall he greatly increase silver and gold for himself.

Inheriting sauls wives to care for, is not the same as him taking wives for himself.

 

[Ben Masada]

What does thou shall not commit adultery mean?

What does thou shall not commit adultery mean?

What does thou shall not commit adultery mean?

Literally, it means to be legally married and, either partner breaks the contract by lying sexually with a third one or, metaphorically, when we break the Covenant between us and the Lord by going for the gods of the other nations according to the first commandment in the Decalogue, "You shall have no other gods besides Me." (Exodus 20:3)

 

[intojoy]

Rogering

 

[Sonnet]

What does thou shall not commit adultery mean?

Literally, it means to be legally married and, either partner breaks the contract by lying sexually with a third one or, metaphorically, when we break the Covenant between us and the Lord by going for the gods of the other nations according to the first commandment in the Decalogue, "You shall have no other gods besides Me." (Exodus 20:3)

Such as definition would make polygamy adultery.

 

[Sonnet]

Incorrect, wives are given to later kings for treaties and inherited, those were the only allowances.

The rendering you use there is not correct, it literally says not to multiply them to themselves.

17 He shall not multiply wives for himself, or else his heart will turn away; nor shall he greatly increase silver and gold for himself.

Inheriting sauls wives to care for, is not the same as him taking wives for himself.

Not really following you. Jacob had four wives I believe.

Whether they were inherited or not - if polygamy was permitted then 'adultery' starts to lose meaning doesn't it?

 

[intojoy]

Not really following you. Jacob had four wives I believe.

Whether they were inherited or not - if polygamy was permitted then 'adultery' starts to lose meaning doesn't it?

David had 18 wives.
Polygamy is not wrong according to scripture.
It's not ideal but was permitted.
Adultery is sex with another man's wife or another woman's husband.

 

[Ben Masada]

Such as definition would make polygamy adultery.

Not really! As long as none of the women belongs to another man through marriage. The king for instance, could take as many as he wished and still be not adultery. In the case of King David yes, it was adultery when he added Bathsheba, the wife of Uriah, a graduated soldier in the Army of Israel. (II Samuel 11:4)Even today, I would not say that the Mormons would be committing adultery by marrying several women who agreed to the arrangement. The point is that the woman must not still be married to another man.

 

[Sonnet]

David had 18 wives.
Polygamy is not wrong according to scripture.
It's not ideal but was permitted.
Adultery is sex with another man's wife or another woman's husband.

(A) Polygamy is not wrong according to scripture.
(B) Adultery is sex with another man's wife or another woman's husband.

Surely, statements (A) and (B) cannot both hold? (B) is satisfied when the second wife of David had sex with him and, according to you, is adulterous - therefore polygamy is adultery which would invalidate (A).

 

[Sonnet]

Not really! As long as none of the women belongs to another man through marriage. The king for instance, could take as many as he wished and still be not adultery. In the case of King David yes, it was adultery when he added Bathsheba, the wife of Uriah, a graduated soldier in the Army of Israel. (II Samuel 11:4)Even today, I would not say that the Mormons would be committing adultery by marrying several women who agreed to the arrangement. The point is that the woman must not still be married to another man.

This definition is not covered under your original:

Literally, it means to be legally married and, either partner breaks the contract by lying sexually with a third one

Would help if you would clarify please.