Hi and I believe what John wrote in 1 John 5:7 !!
The Blasphemy was ONLY committed by Israel and can not be committed today by Gentiles , because of 1 Cor 2:14 !!
dan p
Yep.
Hi and I believe what John wrote in 1 John 5:7 !!
The Blasphemy was ONLY committed by Israel and can not be committed today by Gentiles , because of 1 Cor 2:14 !!
dan p
I’m working a lot right now so I don’t have a bunch of time so I will comment on one point for now.
I would suggest that Jesus’ authority before his sacrifice was not the same as after. After his sacrifice he was given all authority and based on it became the author of our salvation.
Matt. 28:18 And Jesus came up and spoke to them, saying, "All authority has been given to Me in heaven and on earth. 19 Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit,
His D,B &R is the very foundation of our faith.
1 Cor. 15:13 But if there is no resurrection of the dead, not even Christ has been raised; 14 and if Christ has not been raised, then our preaching is vain, your faith also is vain.
Paul stresses his resurrection.
Rom. 8:34 who is the one who condemns? Christ Jesus is He who died, yes, rather who was raised, who is at the right hand of God, who also intercedes for us.
Baptism is how we participate in the sacrifice and communion is how we remember it because it is everything.
Rom. 6: 4 Therefore we have been buried with Him through baptism into death, so that as Christ was raised from the dead through the glory of the Father, so we too might walk in newness of life.
I will try to find time to go over the rest but I've been working 13 nights straight due to a power outage. I don't have the time right now to study long posts and give them a fair looking over, sorry.
I'm still working on this. I was wondering if you had any evidence to support this claim?
Originally Posted by kayaker View Post
Therefore, JTB’s followers were repenting of the false notion, taught by those circumcised Shelanite non-Israelite Pharisee priests in the synagogues, that Messiah had to be a descendant of Abraham and his WIFE Keturah, and then a descendant of Judah and his “Canaanitess” WIFE, granddaughter of Keturah, as were those detractors, themselves (John 8:41 KJV).
Great question...
Isaiah's Messianic progenitor (Isaiah 65:9) hooked up with a Canaanitess wife (Genesis 38:1, 2; 1Chronicles 2:3). Judah also sired progeny via his daughter-in-law Tamar, who played the harlot (Genesis 38:24, 29, 30). The quandary in those days, and prior, was which female co-progenitor would Messiah arrive through. Those descendants were Shelanites via Judah's Canaanitess wife; and, there were the Pharzites (and Zarhites, Numbers 26:20 KJV) via Judah and his daughter-in-law, Tamar.
Those Shelanites were the circumcised progeny of Judah's forbidden marriage to a Canaanite noted in Deuteronomy 7:1, 2, 3, corroborated by Ezra 9:1, 2, being a "great trespass" in Ezra 9:7 KJV. Those circumcised Shelanites infiltrated the Israelite Jewish synagogues proclaiming themselves as the chosen lineage through whom Messiah would arrive. It's imperative to understand they were those who instigated Jesus' crucifixion. They proclaimed they were "Abraham's seed" (John 8:33 KJV) who were never in bondage. Hence: non-Israelites. Jesus affirmed they were "Abraham's seed", but realize Abraham sired progeny via Hagar, Sarah, Keturah and concubines.
Judah's Canaanitess wife was a daughter of Shuah (Genesis 38:1, 2). Judah, no less than Isaiah's progenitor of Messiah... Judah's Canaanite father-in-law Shuah was one of "the children of Keturah" wife of Abraham (Genesis 25:1, 2, 3, 4); but, Shuah was not among the "children" of Abraham. Abraham only had two "sons" (Genesis 25:9 KJV, Galatians 4:22 KJV), and Shuah was not mentioned. So, sure... those detractors were indeed "Abraham's seed" (John 8:37 KJV), they just weren't "Abraham's children" (John 8:39 KJV). And, Abraham didn't think Judah's father-in-law Shuah was one of Abraham's children, Shuah was one of "the children of Keturah" (v. 2, Genesis 25:1, 2, 3, 4).
As we respectfully take for granted, Jesus is Messiah being a descendant of Judah and Tamar (Matthew 1:3 KJV, Luke 3:33). So, it's reasonable to assume those awaiting Messiah in those days as a descendant of Judah and his Canaanitess wife... maternal ancestress to the Shelanites... that those waiting had false hopes in an endless genealogy. Please consider evidence of what was being taught in those days, if not already abundantly circumstantial, please consider 1Timothy 1:4 KJV. Please consider Titus 3:9 KJV.
Those circumcised Shelanites usurped the lineage of Judah that would produce Messiah, or so they proclaimed. Listen to their declaration in John 8:41 KJV "We be not born of fornication..." Judah was MARRIED to his Canaanitess wife (Genesis 38:1, 2, 13). Judah's Canaanitess wife was a granddaughter of Keturah (via Keturah's son Shuah); and Abraham was MARRIED to Keturah (Genesis 25:1, 2, 3, 4).
Those circumcised Shelanites infiltrated the Israelite Jewish synagogues proclaiming they were "Abraham's seed..." who were " not born of fornication" (John 8:33 KJV, John 8:41 KJV). Through deductive reasoning, their ancestral claims via marital relations between Judah and his Canaanitess WIFE, being a granddaughter of Abraham and his WIFE was evidently taught in synagogue where Jesus' detractors came from. Those hypocrites were the non-Israelite Pharisee priests in those days. Take a listen to John 11:45, 46, 47, 48, 49, 50, 51, 52, 53.
So, rest assured T6... some folk did just not believe. But, those Shelanite Pharisee priests were on a mission to exalt themselves in the synagogues, and discredit Jesus. How were the lost sheep misled? By simply not believing? Then, why didn't they believe? Those OT astute Shelanite Pharisee priests had been brow beating them (analogous to Exodus 1, btw) and discounting the possibility Messiah could be a descendant of Judah and his daughter-in-law Tamar. That relationship was indeed contrary to Leviticus 18:15 KJV, Leviticus 20:12 KJV, Leviticus 21:7, 9, 13, 14. So, don't think for one minute that wasn't preached in the synagogues! And, rest assured that had been an ongoing scheme in the Israelite synagogues for decades prior.
And, that was the scenario of the day that John the baptizer encountered, T6. JTB KNEW who they were... Listen to HIS words in Luke 3:2, 7, 8, 9 and continuing in Luke 3:10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17. I do not have explicit Scripture saying what the Pharisees taught in the synagogues; but, the picture paints a thousand words, T6.
Hope this better substantiates my claim you inquired about! Lot's of beef on the menu there... good to hear from you, friend.
kayaker
Actually, your I Tim 1 and Tit 3 references are the reason not to pay any attention to this. Your assumptions show up in your final paragraphs.
You ask 'so why didn't they believe?' I guess you don't know that sin is a spiritual crisis. It is not a genealogical misunderstanding crisis.
You are on your own. I know of absolutely no one in serious NT scholarship who boils it down to this type of misunderstanding. It is not the leaven of wickedness in the Pharisees, that's for sure. It's not their demanding signs. It's not their wickedness and adultery addressed several times. Those are completely illustrated by other things, not this strained genealogical mix up, which misses the whole point of Gal 3-4 and Rom 4 & 9 about the confusion about the seed and offspring, etc. That's why it is not in that discussion at all.
Let us start here:
1. Do you recognize that 'the son of man' is the Lord Jesus when he was on earth in a physical, 'seen' and temporal body?
2. Do you recognize that the son of man is not the Holy Ghost? The revelation above confirms that one can blaspheme the son of man and one shall be forgiven. However if one blaspheme the Holy Ghost it shall not be forgiven him, neither in this world, neither in the world to come.
3. You are aware that Paul did not only blaspheme the son of man. He also blasphemed Peter's church. Paul was not only forgiven, he was given a commission by the Lord Jesus
Therefore do you agree that the son of man is not the Holy Ghost?
To claim that the son of man is the Holy Ghost is to undermine the Holy Ghost and that is blasphemy of the Holy Ghost which is not forgivable at any place or time.
My post says that the son of man is not the Holy Ghost. If you deny my post then you have blaspheme the Holy Ghost and that is not forgivable at any place or time.
It amazes me how hard you work to tell us what the bible "REALLY MEANS!" instead of what it plainly says.
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hI , So start with Eph 3:9 , if you can ?
dan p
It does have a genealogy that has skips in it.
You apparently don't know how to read English. The 'endless genealogy' dispute was not that the genealogy was endless but that the DISPUTING was, which is like talking to you. I don't know why you spend time on it, it is so off-base. What does it have to do with Rom 3:21-31 or Acts 13's sermon's main point that the resurrection is the fulfillment of everything promised to the fathers? Nothing. Absolutely nothing.
Our Messiah was modeled after Melchizedek who was "without father or mother, without genealogy, without beginning or days or end of life, like the Son of God." Heb 7. Good luck with that one. I'm sure you realize that there was a physical genealogy but the writer is saying IT DOESN'T MATTER.
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Rom 1:16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.
A Presbyterian and a Reformed Baptist are having a discussion about immersion vs. affusion.
The Presby asks, "If I'm standing with my feet in the water, is that a valid baptism?"
The RB says, "No, that's not a valid baptism."
The Presby asks, "What about if I'm knee deep in water?"
The RB responds, "No, of course not."
The Presby continues, "Ok, how about if I'm standing in water up to my shoulders, is that a valid baptism?"
RB: "Absolutely not."
The Presby says, "What if I'm underwater, almost completely, with just the crown of my head sticking up from the water, is that valid baptism?"
The RB says, "No, it is not valid baptism unless the top of the head is under water."
The Presby responds, "So, you're saying that water on the top of the head makes the baptism a valid baptism?"
The RB says, "Of course!"
The Presby exclaims, "That's all we're saying, too!"
Someone said no Baptism cause Jesus came in 70ad. How dry is that?Hi and it reminds me of 2 Peter 3:21 and the ONE'S that were Baptized all Drowned and only 8 souls were saved !!
Looks like a DRY Baptism , does it not !!
dan p
dan p
Someone said no Baptism cause Jesus came in 70ad. How dry is that?
#5 and 6 are worthless. The thing to be recieved was the gift of the Spirit which came on several thousand that day.
Scrap all the after the trib this or before the mill that. It is 100% nonsense.
And in Acts 3:28 , where it says " YE SHALL RECIEVE THE Gift " is in the FUTURE TENSE , why is that . because those gift of thre Holy Spirit will be FULFILLED in the Great Tribulation , FORGOT you do not believe that !!
dan p
Hi and the 12 were to go to Jews ONLY AS Acts 3:39 is referring to , those Jews scattered all through the Roman Empire and thsy NEVER complicated Matt 28:19 BUT the 144,000 will do that job during the fiest part of Jacob's Trouble !!
dan p