Pardon me for giggling at your monumental ignorance, my friend.
unfinished business
- Thread starter heir
- Start date
EPO, remember not to be tempted to use foul language again, the Mods have already warned you about that and I'd hate to see you get banned.
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I had to go off in a corner for awhile and laugh my head off. I make sure I'm not drinking some form of a liquid, lest it squirt out my nose and onto the keyboard. Other posters ignorance has that effect on me.
Interplanner
Well-known member
There isn't anything automatic about these passages supporting 2P2P. (2P2P is the essential doctrine of D'ism). Eph 1:10 is true now. Some Bible readers think "true" means there has to be a Judaic theocracy at some point in the future, because they don't read Hebrews or think Hebrews belongs to the 2nd program. Not.
Col 1:26. Yes God allowed the Law & Prophets to be read in literalism, which is veiled or mystery. It makes it sound like there has to be a Judaic theocracy. But there is no necessary conclusion about that from such central passages as Dan 9 and Is 53. The Is 53 debate has been going a long time. "Is the prophet talking about himself or someone else?"!!! (Acts 8). Dan 9 says Messiah accomplishes all those things AND that the city and worship system are destroyed. THAT is what Judaism, D'ism and MADs do not absorb. Yet it is exactly what NT history contains.
There isn't any question that Judaism was supposed to have a mission to the nations and that the response was going to be favorable. The question, Eph 3:6 shows, was whether this took place through the Law (as in inter-testament Judaism) or the Gospel. Guess which.
EPO is a very CONFUSED individual. He's ignorant of how to "Rightly Divide" the written word of God. I think he would prefer me to call the House of Israel; The lost sheep of the House of Israel as Christ stated it. I will oblige him if it confuses the poor chap.
Matthew 15:24 "But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel." See EPO, even Christ Himself called them the lost sheep of the House of Israel.
If you consider the "Grace Gospel" to be a joke, that's on you.
Interplanner
Well-known member
...or he meant a subgroup, as is the case elsewhere. Not all Israel are Israel. Christ was sent to the lost sheep of it, but they have to admit that's what they are. He was not sent to the arrogant ones.
Where does Scripture state that Christ came for a sub-group of the House of Israel?
Where?
Interplanner
Well-known member
right there. He came for the lost. 1 of 100. this was very frequent in his accusation of Israel; those who said they were lost would gain; those who said they were just fine would suffer loss. He came for the lost of all 'houses' by the way. Only those who considered themselves lost. He doesn't help any others.
Rom 9:6 is the passage that says 'Not all Israel are Israel.'
Huh??
See what I mean?
musterion
Well-known member
Then show where Peter, before Paul was saved, knew that God no longer dealt with Jews as His special people, instead preaching the DBR as good news for dog Gentiles as well as Jews, without any preference, distinction or difference between them whatsoever.
Demonstrate that and you win.
heir
TOL Subscriber
Uh...hello? is there anybody in there? The Lord preached the gospel of the kingdom (that's a biblical term) for three years while walking the earth. IOW, before His death, He preached the gospel of the kingdom. Yet Paul's gospel is that Christ died for our sins, was buried and rose again the third day. It is impossible that they are the same gospel!
You are right that Paul was given his gospel by revelation of Jesus Christ, but no it is not the same as shown above and because it was a mystery before (Romans 16:25-27 KJV). Something that was kept secret since the world began, but now is made manifest,..." is not something that was preached as the good news before that!
No, the 12 preached an entirely different gospel. Peter, James and John didn't even know Paul's gospel until he went up by revelation and communicated it unto them! It was then that they saw, not before (Galatians 2:1-9 KJV)!
No, they taught keeping the law as commandment/ required for salvation (Matthew 19:17 KJV, Matthew 23:1-3 KJV, James 2:17 KJV, James 2:20 KJV, James 2:27 KJV).
John taught that the love of God was the keeping of commandments (1 John 5:3 KJV and Paul preached Paul preached but God (Ephesians 2:4-9 KJV).
No, it isn't and you have been shown over and over by the scriptures the things that differ.
No. Only Jews and Gentiles in the Body are saved.
What word of the gospel did Corne's house hear? It certainly wasn't the gospel of Christ by which we are saved.
Are you saved? You've yet to tell anyone what the gospel of your salvation is. Why the hesitation?
heir
TOL Subscriber
James 1:1 KJV
heir
TOL Subscriber
Where is the term "one gospel"? It's not there! There is mention of two gospels in Romans 1 alone! Romans 1:1-4 KJV and Romans 1:16 KJV!