I think it is. In both cases there is the concept of proper authority that cannot be undone from below.
Say you are in China, and government has taken your pregnant wife and is going to murder the unborn baby. That man is justified in using deadly force against the government to stop them. Absolutely and without question.
Against the murderer, not the government. He is justified in doing what it takes to protect his child, but he is not justified in attempting to overthrow the government.
Though there are means by which he could become involved in action, including the use of force, to unseat his government, he is not justified in attempting to usurp it himself.
However, this discussion just entered the realms of fantasy because once the man has taken the right course of action in the scenario you presented he would almost certainly be killed.
I never inferred stealing anything from anyone, what I did ask pertaining the question "at what point is revolution ever justified?"
I was hoping my analogy would answer your question.
Is whether revolution is justified when the government steals and is lawless against the people. Are the people ever justified in their revolt in this circumstance? You say the people are never justified [or at least that is what I thought you inferred], I am positing possible justification or circumstance in which it is justified. After all the United States as well as many other nations came to be by just such circumstances, were these actions by the people never justified?
My stance is rock-solid. There exists a concept called government. When a government has been established over an area of land, the citizens under its control are not justified in overthrowing it regardless of the government's actions.
Define 'steals' and 'is lawless'. If you get mugged are you justified in killing that person to protect your wallet?
Dude, quit hijacking the thread. :nono: