Israel ceased to exist in 70 A.D.
Job was a Gentile that believed in God as his redeemer.
Do you consider Isaiah 53 as an "allegory" for "Israel" (which failed to exist for 2,000 years)?
Israel ceased to exist in 70 A.D. Job was a Gentile that believed in God as his redeemer. Do you consider Isaiah 53 as an "allegory" for "Israel" (which failed to exist for 2,000 years)?
Since the day Israel fell at the hands of the Assyrians to no longer rise again as we have in Amos 5:2, Judah became known as the new Israel. (Isaiah 48:1)Even to this very day, our Country has become known as Israel, not Judah although Judah aka the Jews reign in Israel. (Ezekiel 37:22)
Israel ceased to exist in 722 ACE when it was conquered by the Assyrians. In 70 ACE was Judah but for only 70 years in Babylon. If you read Psalm 78:67-70, Israel was rejected forever and Judah was confirmed to remain as God's People forever.
As I said before, the book of Job was an allegory, a Jewish novel with the intent to show the role of Israel qua Emmanuel. If you read Isaiah 8:8, you will understand that the author is talking about Judah qua Emanuel, not Israel the Ten Tribes. And Job in the novel was not a Gentile but a Jew. Gentiles were his friends who had come from the East to offer consolation to Job.
Now, as Isaiah 53 is concerned, yes, it is also an allegory aka an analogy about Israel as the Suffering Servant or Messiah Ben Joseph versus Judah the Triumphant Servant or Messiah Ben David.