ECT The Gospel Preached at Pentecost

intojoy

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Let us look at what "gospel" Peter was preaching in Jerusalem following that command of the lord Jesus. We have an uninterrupted sermon preached by Peter on the day of Pentecost beginning at Acts 2:14 and ending at Acts 2:36. In that sermon there is not a word about God's "grace" and there is not a word about the purpose of the Lord Jesus' death on the Cross.

Instead, Peter summed up his sermon with the "good news"(gospel) in the following way:

"Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made the same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ" (Acts 2:36).​

You will not deny that this fact is indeed "good news" or gospel will you, especially to the Jews?

The Jews who believe the good news that Jesus is the Christ were born of God and saved the moment when they believed that truth.

But you deny that this fact was "good news" or gospel to the Jews even though belief in that fact brought salvation to everyone of those who believed that truth!

According to you Peter was preaching that Christ died for our sins in that sermon despite the fact that nothing in his sermon even hints that is true. And then to make it worse you cannot even understand that it was indeed "good news" to those who heard Peter declare that Jesus is the Christ.

Good morning Jerry, I know you're struggling over this and I want you to know that I'm in direct communication with the Lord for you here brother. Keep me posted as to your progress!


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Jerry Shugart

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Please notice that Gal 1:23 says he was preaching the (single) faith he once tried to destroy.

Yes, and that is in regard to what he was preaching to the Jews. The first message which Paul preached after being converted was the "gospel of the kingdom" in the synagogues of the Jews:

"And straightway he preached Christ in the synagogues, that he is the Son of God...proving that this is the very Christ" (Acts 9:20,22).​

That was the same gospel which Paul continued to preach to the Jews:

"Now when they had passed through Amphipolis and Apollonia, they came to Thessalonica, where was a synagogue of the Jews: And Paul, as his manner was, went in unto them, and three sabbath days reasoned with them out of the scriptures, Opening and alleging, that Christ must needs have suffered, and risen again from the dead; and that this Jesus, whom I preach unto you, is Christ"
(Acts17:1-2,30).​

That is the same message that Apollos preached to the Jews:

"For he mightily convinced the Jews, and that publicly, shewing by the scriptures that Jesus is Christ"
(Acts18:28).​

So we can clearly see that the central message that was preached to the Jews is the fact that it is Jesus Who is the Christ, the Son of God. And belief in that gospel resulted in salvation.

But you deny that this was "good news" to all the Jews who heard and it and continue to teach that the message which was being preached to the Jews during the Acts period was that Christ died for their sins.

But when asked to provide even one instance from the book of Acts where that was preached to them you throw up your hands and say, "Just believe me even though I have no evidence."

Unlike you, my faith is built on what the Scriptures themselves reveal and not on what some men say about the Scriptures.
 

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According to you Peter was preaching that Christ died for our sins in that sermon despite the fact that nothing in his sermon even hints that is true. And then to make it worse you cannot even understand that it was indeed "good news" to those who heard Peter declare that Jesus is the Christ.
I have also explained this to many people here on many occasions, but they have blinders on and cannot understand simple truth.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Good morning Jerry, I know you're struggling over this and I want you to know that I'm in direct communication with the Lord for you here brother. Keep me posted as to your progress!

While you are in direct contact with Him ask Him if it was "good news" or "gospel" to the Jews when Peter told them that Jesus is the Christ. And then please tell me how He answered.
 

intojoy

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After Paul's encounter on the Damascus road with the Lord Jesus he preached to the Jews the good news (gospel) that Jesus is the Christ. After that encounter he went immediately to Damascus.

But when he received the gospel he preached to the Gentiles he immediately went to Arabia.

That means that the gospel which he preached to the Jews, that Jesus is the Christ, was not the same gospel which he preached to the Gentiles.

Do you think that Jews can be saved apart from the gospel today? Because as a dispensationalist, the content of faith changed for Israel after the cross. Before the cross Peter was saved by believing in the Messiahship of Jesus. After the resurrection Jesus taught Peter that His death redeemed him from his sins and then right there, as God revealed the nature of the cross' redemption for the remission of sin, new requirements for faith were added in order for one to be born again.
I hope you're not like Dog the Bounty Hunter here in Honolulu who told me that the Jews have there own route to heaven apart from the gospel. I told him - " you trippin fool"


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Jerry Shugart

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Because as a dispensationalist, the content of faith changed for Israel after the cross. Before the cross Peter was saved by believing in the Messiahship of Jesus.

So do you admit that the gospel which he was preaching at Luke 9:6 was the one which declared that Jesus is the Christ and not one which spoke of the Lord Jesus' death as being for sins?

After the resurrection Jesus taught Peter that His death redeemed him from his sins and then right there, as God revealed the nature of the cross' redemption for the remission of sin, new requirements for faith were added in order for one to be born again.

When after His resurrection and please give me your evidence from the Bible which supports your conclusion.

I hope you're not like Dog the Bounty Hunter here in Honolulu who told me that the Jews have there own route to heaven apart from the gospel. I told him - " you trippin fool"

No, I do not agree with Dog about that but I would have been a little bit more diplomatic than you in regard to what I told him.

Do you think that Jews can be saved apart from the gospel today?

No one can be saved apart from believing the "good news" of Christ. By the way, have you asked the LORD if it was "good news" or "gospel" to the Jews when Peter told them that Jesus is the Christ?
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
Messiah was known to be the sacrifice for sins. The confusion in Judaism at that time (and continuing somewhat) was that the Servant was thought to be exilic Israel suffering for its sins.

So to say Christ was Messiah at any time in NT meant the sacrifice and meant Israel's exilic suffering was not an atonement for its sins.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Messiah was known to be the sacrifice for sins.

The "purpose" of the sufferings of Jesus Christ were kept "secret" until Paul. He refers to his gospel as "the preaching of the Cross" (1 Cor.1:18), and says: "But we speak the wisdom of God in a mystery, even the hidden wisdom,which God ordained before the ages unto our glory; Which none of the princes of this age knew;for had they known it,they would not have crucified the Lord of glory" (1 Cor.2:7-8).

If the princes would have known that the Lord Jesus was the sacrifice for sins they would have never put Him to death.
 

SaulToPaul 2

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Messiah was known to be the sacrifice for sins. The confusion in Judaism at that time (and continuing somewhat) was that the Servant was thought to be exilic Israel suffering for its sins.

So to say Christ was Messiah at any time in NT meant the sacrifice and meant Israel's exilic suffering was not an atonement for its sins.

Made up.
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
The "purpose" of the sufferings of Jesus Christ were kept "secret" until Paul. He refers to his gospel as "the preaching of the Cross" (1 Cor.1:18), and says: "But we speak the wisdom of God in a mystery, even the hidden wisdom,which God ordained before the ages unto our glory; Which none of the princes of this age knew;for had they known it,they would not have crucified the Lord of glory" (1 Cor.2:7-8).

If the princes would have known that the Lord Jesus was the sacrifice for sins they would have never put Him to death.




That verse means they themselves would not have done it, but others would have, because it always was the plan since the foundation of the world. God's control of it all meant they accomplished the Gospel even thought they did not want to. They did not want it to succeed and happen, but, like Pharaoh, God was actually in control.

You really have no idea Jerry.

You've left the idea of the knowledge of his death in the pre-confession synoptics, and now you are just as lost over here, trying to dig up a non-death-for-sins 'gospel' from somewhere; anything to make 2P2P "true"!

And as for just plain poor handling of a text, why do you assume you are right about "it" in the 'if they had known it' phrase?

(btw, when I say pre-confession synoptics, the reason you spend no time in John is because your theory is a total loss there, as the other post-er here has shown)
 
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oatmeal

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On the day of Pentecost those who believed Peter's message were being saved. That means that Peter did preach a gospel that day and that gospel was not the "gospel of grace." We can know this because before anyone can be baptized with water they must first believe (Acts 8:36-37) and here we read that those who gladly received Peter's words were baptized:

"Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls" (Acts 2:41).​

We have an uninterrupted sermon preached by Peter on the day of Pentecost beginning at Acts 2:14 and ending at Acts 2:36. In that sermon there is not a word about God's "grace" and there is not a word about the purpose of the Lord Jesus' death on the Cross. Peter used facts of the death and resurrection of the Lord Jesus to prove the deity of Jesus and the fact that he is the promised Messiah. Peter ended his sermon with the following words:

"Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made the same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ"
(Acts 2:36).​

Dr. Stanley D. Toussaint, Senior Professor Emeritus of Bible Exposition at Dallas Theological Seminary (Acts 2), writes the following commentary on Acts 2:36:

"Here is the conclusion to Peter's sermon. The noun 'Lord', referring to 'Christ', probably is a reference to Yahweh. The same word 'kyrios' is used of 'God' in verses 21, 34, and 39 (cf. Phil. 2:9). This is a strong affirmation of Christ's deity"
(The Bible Knowledge Commentary; New Testament, ed. Walvoord & Zuck, [ChariotVictor Publishing, 1983], 359).​

The Jews who believed that Jesus is Christ, God come in the flesh, were "born of God". Dr. Zane Hodges, past Chairman of of the New Testament Department at Dallas Theological Seminary, writes the following in regard to Peter's words:

"Peter concludes his address with the assertion that 'God has made this Jesus, whom you have crucified, both Lord and Christ' (2:36). His hearers then reply, 'Men and brethren, what shall we do?' (2:37). But such a reaction presumes their acceptance of Peter's claim that they have crucified the one who is Lord and Christ. If this is what they now believe, then they were already regenerated on Johannine terms, since John wrote: 'Whoever believes that Jesus is the Christ is born of God' (1 John 5:1; cf. John 20:31)" [emphasis added] (Hodges, The Gospel Under Siege, 101).​

Here are the verses to which Hodges makes reference: "Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God...Who is he that overcometh the world, but he that believeth that Jesus is the Son of God?" (1 Jn.5:1,5).

On the day of Pentecost those who believed the "good news" that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, were "born of God" and saved. This "good news" is the same good news which was first preached to the Jews:

"For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek"
(Ro.1:16).​

The "good news" of Christ which was preached to the Jews first was different "good news" which was later preached to the Gentiles.


Since Acts 2:41 does not use the word "water" regarding baptism, the reference to baptism is not referring to "water baptism".

What does the context tell us about what kind of baptism is being referred to? Acts 2:38 "be baptized... in the name of Jesus Christ"

the name of Jesus Christ is far more powerful, cleansing, empowering than any amount of H2O could ever be.
 
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