The beginning of time is the first event.First, answer this: Was God creating an event in and of itself?
The beginning of time is the first event.First, answer this: Was God creating an event in and of itself?
The beginning of time is the first event.
He created the first moments. Thus we can conclude there is a beginning being a first moment for the noninfinite universe.That's not what I asked.
Please answer the question I asked:
Was God creating an event in and of itself?
I read the first paragraph. Why would I take my beliefs from someone who denies what God says about Himself? The fact that he, and open theism, makes a claim that an omniscient God has pagan origins (unvalidated. If they thought their god had to be unchangable, why did they need so many?)is meaningless. Christianity gets that knowledge straight out of what the Bible says. It isn't borrowed from anywhere.I recommend reading this article by Christopher Fischer, someone I met recently, and who has his own podcast.
the greek origin of omniscience
The concept of omniscience in rooted in the idea of God’s “perfection”. In platonism, the perfect cannot change. Thus, if god changed (such as learning new information) then god would not be perfec…realityisnotoptional.com
I read the first paragraph.
Why would I take my beliefs from someone who denies what God says about Himself?
The fact that he, and open theism, makes a claim that an omniscient God has pagan origins
(unvalidated.
If they thought their god had to be unchangable, why did they need so many?)
is meaningless.
Christianity gets that knowledge straight out of what the Bible says.
It isn't borrowed from anywhere.
He created the first moments.
Thus we can conclude there is a beginning being a first moment for the noninfinite universe.
God in the beginning (which beginning too?) created the Earth. God comes before beginning from in the LXX.
No need. It is hogwash.Now read the rest of it.
I provided scripture already. It is what started this exchange. You saying no matter what the scriptures I quoted say, they mean what you say they mean.And that would be, what, exactly?
You didn't bother to provide any scripture.
So, same thing.No. What he's saying is that the idea that God (or, in the case of the pagan Greeks, their gods) has omniscience has it's origins in pagan philosophy.
Big difference.
[QUOTE(unvalidated.
The question came out of suppositions you were making, so a red herring only in your eyes.Red herring. Stay on topic.
Why don't you Just write "chorus" everytime this is your inane response to something you can't disprove. We all know it by heart.Saying it doesn't make it so.
"Chorus."Saying it doesn't make it so.
No need. It is hogwash.
I provided scripture already.
It is what started this exchange. You saying no matter what the scriptures I quoted say, they mean what you say they mean.
So, same thing.
The question came out of suppositions you were making, so a red herring only in your eyes.
Why don't you Just write "chorus" everytime this is your inane response to something you can't disprove. We all know it by heart.
"Chorus."
It shouldn't take any work to defeat that accusation....something you can't disprove.
It shouldn't take any work to defeat that accusation.
The fact that he, and open theism, makes a claim that an omniscient God has pagan origins . . . is meaningless
The fact that some aspects of pagan polytheistic practices involved their deities being omniscient, does not conclude that is where the theology of God (the one true and living God) in Christianity that recognizes the omniscience of this one true and living God, as He reveals Himself in our Bible, is borrowed from the pagans.It's not meaningless. The idea that God is omniscient having pagan origins is a valid observation of history.
It affects one's entire theology, and thus, ignoring it's origin has a drastic impact on why one believes what he or she believes.
?? Could you please tell me what you are referring to?It shouldn't take any work to defeat that accusation.
Logical fallacy is a overused catch phrase, one that is already waning in popularity of forums. It most often is used by people who think the phrase alone will give cred, to what they say so as to not have to actually say anything. I do not need to read it. It is the propaganda of an open theist. I do not care what he has to say about it, it is bound to be slanted and untrustworthy from the get go.You can't honestly say that if you haven't read it.
Your appeal to the stone is a logical fallacy.
On he omniscience of God:
1 John 3:20 in whatever our heart condemns us; for God is greater than our heart and knows all things.
Psalm 139:4 Even before there is a word on my tongue, behold O Lord, you know it all.
Matt 10:30 But the very hairs of your head are all numbered.
Psalm 147:4 He counts the number of the stars; He gives names to all of them.
Hebrews 4:14 ANd there is no creature hidden from His sight, but all things are open and laid bare to the eyes of Him with whom we have to do,
Isaiah 46:9-10 "Remember the former things long past, for I am God, and there is no other; I am God, and there is no one like Me, declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times things which have not been done, saying, 'My purpose will be established, and I will accomplish all My good pleasure.
Second verse following the chorus.Says the one who refuses to back up her arguments.
No, he created the Heavens, the Earth and everything that is in them in six days.No, he created the Earth in six days. The ground and the elevations.
Saying it doesn't make it so, Omniskeptical! Saying it simply does not make it so.Very unscientific and untrue.
It does not exist outside a thinking mind. It is not a thing, it is an idea. It exists in the same sense that distance exists. There is no THING that is "distance". Distance is an idea. Its a way of referencing the location of an object (a thing that does exist) relative to another object. Time is the same sort of thing. It's just a convention of language. We use it to discuss the duration and sequence of events relative to other events.Explain ontologically.
Think that statement through, Omniskeptical, if you can or dare.Time was created to make events possible for everyone.
The fact that some aspects of pagan polytheistic practices involved their deities being omniscient, does not conclude that is where the theology of God (the one true and living God) in Christianity that recognizes the omniscience of this one true and living God, as He reveals Himself in our Bible, is borrowed from the pagans.
The pagan nations surrounding Israel also had covenants and sacrifices. Does that mean that those things too originated in paganism?
But you are right in one thing. Knowing that God is omniscient, and by His own declaration
For example His repeatedly telling His people to trust in Him. If He is not omniscient, omnipotent, and omnipresent---how can we?
The supposed "origins" of something do not change whether a thing is true or not.
Did God exist before the pagan idolatrous practices of worship, or after them? Who is the origin in that scenario?
Logical fallacy is a overused catch phrase,
one that is already waning in popularity of forums.
It most often is used by people who think the phrase alone will give cred,
to what they say so as to not have to actually say anything.
I do not need to read it.
It is the propaganda of an open theist.
I do not care what he has to say about it,
it is bound to be slanted and untrustworthy from the get go.
JR said: "refresh my memory"
Eph 1:3-6 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ, just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love, having predestined us to adoption as sons by Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the good pleasure of His will, to the praise of the glory of His grace, by which He made us accepted in the Beloved.
On he omniscience of God:
1 John 3:20 in whatever our heart condemns us; for God is greater than our heart and knows all things.
Psalm 139:4 Even before there is a word on my tongue, behold O Lord, you know it all.
Matt 10:30 But the very hairs of your head are all numbered.
Psalm 147:4 He counts the number of the stars; He gives names to all of them.
Hebrews 4:14 And there is no creature hidden from His sight, but all things are open and laid bare to the eyes of Him with whom we have to do,
Isaiah 46:9-10 "Remember the former things long past, for I am God, and there is no other; I am God, and there is no one like Me, declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times things which have not been done, saying, 'My purpose will be established, and I will accomplish all My good pleasure.
Second verse following the chorus.
Yes that is what I am saying. With the exception that I would say "does not mean that God being omniscient is borrowed from the pagans" No matter what someone attributes to the inner workings of Augustine's mind or anyone else's.In other words, you're saying:
[That some pagan philosophical constructs exist does not mean that God being omniscient is from the pagans.]
Is that correct?
We aren't talking about deities. We are talking about God. That God is omniscient is self evident in His self revelation. He could not do what He has done and is doing if He did not know everything. Can you honestly say with any scriptural backup that Jesus or any of the apostles, or OT saints did not know that God is omniscient?The argument presented is that Augustine brought the idea that deities are omniscient into Christianity FROM the pagan Greek philosophers, and applied it to God. The idea didn't exist in Christianity prior to him doing so.
Augustine was (sadly) told by his mother's bishop to interpret the Bible in light of Plato, and to interpret whatever agrees with him as literal, and where it disagrees, take it as figurative.
That's a fact of history, Arial.
It isn't. You simply don't wish to address it.Irrelevant to the discussion.
He shows Himself to be, and He most certainly declares Himself to be. You find scriptures like the one above, that if interpreted the way you do, contradict a massive amount of things that are said clearly in the Bible. Rather than try and solve the paradox, which could take some time and effort, you choose the one you want to believe and discard the rest. That's a fact JR.God isn't omniscient, and never declares Himself to be.
On the contrary, He says things like:
I will go down now and see whether they have done altogether according to the outcry against it that has come to Me; and if not, I will know.” - Genesis 18:21 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis18:21&version=NKJV
That was brilliantly stated, JR!How can we trust in a God who is not omniscient, omnipotent, omnipresent, immutable, or impassable?
Here's how:
Greater love has no one than this, than to lay down one’s life for his friends. - John 15:13 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John15:13&version=NKJV
And:
For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life. - John 3:16 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John3:16&version=NKJV
And:
So when Jesus had received the sour wine, He said, “It is finished!” And bowing His head, He gave up His spirit. - John 19:30 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John19:30&version=NKJV
That's how we can trust Him. Not because of how much knowledge He has, not because of how much power He has, not because of how many places He can be at once. Not because of what He cannot do or be affected by.
We can trust Him because He showed us that He loves us enough to die for us.
Abraham was put to a test by God, not to find out what he would do, but to test: a procedure intended to establish the quality of in this case Abraham's faith. And it is presented to us in language and manner that humans can understand, also known as anthropomorphic language. It teaches us something about God, but not what you took from it.And He said, “Do not lay your hand on the lad, or do anything to him; for now I know that you fear God, since you have not withheld your son, your only son, from Me.” - Genesis 22:12 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis22:12&version=NKJV
What if He gets so fed up with us that He changes His mind? And anyway that does not address all the things He says He knows in the Bible (including everything), and it only addresses salvation. What about the many covenant promises He made to Israel regarding their protection and care? How could He promise to feed them from the sixth year harvest , through no harvest in the seventh, and no harvest till harvest time of the eighth if He did not know everything? God knows everything because He governs everything.That's how we can trust Him. Not because of how much knowledge He has, not because of how much power He has, not because of how many places He can be at once. Not because of what He cannot do or be affected by.
We can trust Him because He showed us that He loves us enough to die for us.
No it isn't. You simply don't want to address it.Irrelevant to the discussion.
No, it is still a catch phrase. And though you said I used a logical fallacy, you failed to tell me what that logical fallacy was or what was fallacy about it and why. You simply declared it to be one. Ah---an ad hominem!It's not when the person is using logical fallacies to support their arguments.
Then hold yourself to that same standard.As someone who constantly calls people out for using logical fallacies, I assure you, it's not about credibility of myself, it's about holding the other person accountable to the truth.
It is pretty loaded. What's your point?So then, how would you respond to the following?
Have you stopped beating your spouse?
Would you:
A) say: "No."
B) say: "I never started"
C) Call out the person for asking a loaded question
That is a fallacy of some sort. It presumes that because it refutes what I said, that makes it right. (scratchin' my head on that one.) Not only that if presumes that I should do something just because you want me to. You have no legitimate reason to think that I should read something I have no interest in reading.You should, because it soundly refutes your position.
That's your doctrine but the bible tells us explicitly that the test was for God's sake, not Abraham's. The result of the test was...Abraham was put to a test by God, not to find out what he would do, but to test: a procedure intended to establish the quality of in this case Abraham's faith. And it is presented to us in language and manner that humans can understand, also known as anthropomorphic language. It teaches us something about God, but not what you took from it.
That would be His prerogative and in fact we have been warned of precisely that...What if He gets so fed up with us that He changes His mind?
We do not deny the existence of figures of speech in the bible and this is why I have no problem with using the term "omniscient" in referrence to God. It is a type of hyperbole. When you say that God knows everything, it does not HAVE TO mean that God knows every single solitary exhaustive detail of all existence. It is perfectly acceptable to say such things in general terms and generally speaking God does know everything. The point is that the very same bible that says God knows everything, explicitly states that there are some things that God chooses to ignore and/or forget.And anyway that does not address all the things He says He knows in the Bible (including everything), and it only addresses salvation.
They were all conditional. (See! That's how one might speak in general terms.)What about the many covenant promises He made to Israel regarding their protection and care?
Seriously?How could He promise to feed them from the sixth year harvest , through no harvest in the seventh, and no harvest till harvest time of the eighth if He did not know everything?
That's nonsense. The king of France rules all of France without even knowing how many of his subjects are awake and sober.God knows everything because He governs everything.
"Saying it doesn't make it so!" is the phrase you're looking for.No, it is still a catch phrase. And though you said I used a logical fallacy, you failed to tell me what that logical fallacy was or what was fallacy about it and why. You simply declared it to be one. Ah---an ad hominem!
Establishing one thing as false would only prove something else as the truth if/when that something else is the only logical alternative.That is a fallacy of some sort. It presumes that because it refutes what I said, that makes it right. (scratchin' my head on that one.)
You need to get just a bit of a grip here. It's not as if he actually thinks he has authority over you, Arial. Not only that, but he didn't even insinuate that you should do anything on the basis of him having made the suggestion. That's just you being reactionary.Not only that if presumes that I should do something just because you want me to. You have no legitimate reason to think that I should read something I have no interest in reading.