Spammers wasteland

Spammers wasteland


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heir

TOL Subscriber
You believe the script. You don't believe what those words mean in translation and interpretation.
I believe every inspired by God word in the all scripture of the King James Bible I hold in my hands as I 2 Timothy 2:15 KJV whether or not I fully understand what I have read at that moment. I believe every word. I do not agree with mistranslation and misinterpretation of any of it.

No, they're not. That's absurd. Words don't self-define by bare appearance. You deny 2000 years of the Christian faith.
An example of terms being defined in a KJB is Ephesians 1:13 KJV. According to the verse, the word of truth is the gospel of your salvation! See how easy that was? We can believe the Bible without your high falutin words and speeches!

Nobody said anything about being a scholar. People use English dictionaries all the time for writings that weren't even translated from another language.

This is the most ridiculously stupid statement anyone has ever made. Except your other MAD peers who also say this.
The point is, we have all scripture in English in a King James Bible and the terms are defined therein. There’s no need to Greek it out (especially since we don’t read, speak or study Greek) when it’s all right in front of us perfect and preserved (Psalms 12:6-7 KJV) to be believed, studied, and meditated upon in English!

NO. The demons, like all you MADs, believe in God. That's not salvific. The tragedy is you despising inspired scripture.

English doesn't determine translation in arrears.
I believe “all scripture” so your “depising inspired scripture” won’t fly here. And speaking of all scripture; I have all scripture in the King James Bible I hold in my hands. Where is your “all scripture”? Where can I pick up the “all scripture” you have that I can 2 Timothy 2:15 KJV?

No, you don't. And yes, you will. You think Judas had authentic repentance unto salvation. You think sins (hamartemata) are sins (hamartiai). You pervert everything Erasmus contributed to the KJV.
Yes, I do (this is fun!). I believe every word as the pure words of the Lord. Those who build on the foundation a wise master builder Paul laid (1 Corinthians 3:10-15 KJV) and approve things that are excellent (Philippians 1:9-10 KJV) by 1 Corinthians 2:13 KJV and 2 Timothy 2:15 KJV will not be ashamed. No mention of knowing the “the Greek” there.

And yes, I believe sins are sins and that Christ died for them all in our place (Romans 4:25 KJV, 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV)! They are gone (Colossians 2:11-13 KJV)!

I believe the words on the page. You don't. You believe your concepts about what they mean because your language has sculpted your heart and mind in deception.
Do you believe that Christ died for your sins as in your offences?

"This" is a demonstrative pronoun. The Greek article "The" began as a weak demonstrative pronoun and became the article. "This" is just the referrent form of "the".

I don't change anything. You don't understand even the basic rudiments of language for English OR for the language it is translated from.

It's pure idiocy.
I believe the Holy Ghost got it right (2 Peter 1:21 KJV)! It says "this grace" and it's a specific grace as in the unsearchable riches of Christ to these "you Gentiles" (Ephesians 2:11-12 KJV,Ephesians 3:1-9 KJV). It’s all there in black and white!

No. You're the pseudo-English fake, always worshipping the letters on the page instead of the Word itself. There is no life of the Spirit in you.
As I said before, I worship God in spirit and in truth (John 4:24 KJV) and as God magnified His word above all His name (and there are three that bear record in heaven 1 John 5:7 KJV) as is written in Psalms 138:2 KJV, I do too proclaim!

I do exactly that in the most copious detail imaginable. It's your ignorance and arrogance that presume you know what translated words mean. Words aren't even translated from Greek into English with the same English words much of the time.
You're imagining the "imaginable". You babble on and on telling us how words don’t really mean what they say and that we cannot believe the words of the Lord in a King James Bible. You are a fool!

You're the perverter doing that, along with your band of non-churcher MAD destroyers of truth
:rotfl:

I've done so repeatedly.
No, you haven’t.

ANY basic linguist would laugh at you and be appalled. You're like a kindergartner defending their bad spelling of a word by phonetics only.
All scripture in a King James Bible is my final authority. What’s yours? Where is it? Where can I get mine? Surely you have it the way you talk down to everyone.

No, you most certainly are not. There is nothing worse than your Confirmation Bias and Cognitive Dissonance, except your hatred for how God inspired His Word for all ages.
Yes, I have been and what’s more, I believe the words of the Lord whereas you explain them away! It is you who hates all scripture that IS inspired by God.

There aren't differing species of grace. Once again you demonstrate your illiteracy and preschool novice status.
Paul's grace as in the grace that Paul preached! It is unlike that preached by Peter and the boys! None of us are waiting for the “grace” that “should come unto you” (1 Peter 1:10 KJV), Are we? No we are not! We have a standing in “this grace” by the faith of Jesus Christ (Romans 5:1-2 KJV) and it was Paul who was made a minister, according to the gift of the grace of God given unto him by the effectual working of God’s power (Ephesians 3:7 KJV). Unto Paul was “this grace” given (Ephesians 3:6 KJV) that he should preach among the Gentiles (specifically these Gentiles Ephesians 2:11-12 KJV, Ephesians 3:1-2 KJV) the unsearchable riches of Christ (Ephesians 3:8 KJV). Without the gospel given to Paul of “this grace” Gentiles such as we had no hope! But God and but now, baby (Ephesians 2:4-9 KJV, Ephesians 2:13 KJV)!

Nope. But all your false ridiculous 19th-century doctrines are. All MADs are fools.
In what century was Paul committed a dispensation of the gospel? How about the dispensation of God? And the dispensation of the grace of God? And what doctrine did he command Timothy to charge some that they teach no other (1 Timothy 1:3 KJV)? The answer is easy: no other doctrine than: 2 Timothy 1:13 KJV, 2 Timothy 2:2 KJV! I charge you the same!

If they've heard the truth and haven't heard a substitute English fallacy, that study can come during their walk of the Spirit after they are saved. If they're given false meanings, they may hear something besides the Gospel from false English meanings that those like you deceive them by.
I asked you
How long does one have to study the "the Greek" before they can be saved?
If it's translated correctly into English, of course.
Which you say it isn’t so there’s no hope for anyone unless they know “the Greek”. What a crock! God will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth (1 Timothy 2:4-6 KJV) and the gospel that is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth is easy enough for a child to understand!
That's the problem. You don't know what repentance and sins mean, and you know something ELSE in the place of what they mean.
I have all scripture to tell me what they mean. I’m not about to take your word for anything as you don’t even believe what saith the scripture.

Faith and hearing are nouns. They're not verbs.
Faith cometh by hearing and hearing by the word of God (Romans 10:17 KJV). Once again, not the “the Greek”.
You think you're saved because you did something. You think your works saved you.
You are out of mind. I believe no such thing. I know and whole heartedly believe Titus 3:5 KJV. I know salvation is by grace through faith (Ephesians 2:8-9 KJV).
The Word of God saves, not your works.
Actually, it is the gospel of the grace of God (the same good news that Christ died for our sins and that He was buried and rose again the third day as declared in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth (Romans 1:16 KJV). Technically, no longer the gospel of Christ to the Jew first and also to the Greek, but the gospel of the grace of God (Acts 20:24 KJV) to all men (1 Timothy 2:4-6 KJV, Titus 2:11 KJV). {QUOTE] And it does so by the noun of hearing, out of which the noun of faith comes.[/QUOTE]One trusts the Lord after hearing and believing the word of truth, the gospel of our salvation (Ephesians 1:13 KJV).

No. It comes by valid translation so the report (hearing) IS the Word of God, which saves. NOT your paltry and pathetic works that begin with you allegedly believing with no faith to do so or that came from the Word of God.
Which is where? Where can we all get one?
It's every scripture that you would post that it is, but according to the proper translation for meaning so that it's the accurate report (hearing, from Romans 10:17) instead of your false report.
My report is that the gospel Paul declares in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV is the gospel by which we are saved! That is not a false report! It’s the word of truth, the gospel of our salvation (Ephesians 1:13-14 KJV)!

You don't. You believe what you think they mean. Any translator would destroy your drivel. The translators of the KJV would hate every word you speak.
Psalms 12:6-7 KJV, Proverbs 30:5 KJV

I don't care what you or they think. I'm only interested in what saith the scripture.
 

heir

TOL Subscriber
Hearing about a coming big weekly paycheck is "good news". Is that the Gospel?

It's a very particular good news, and it has an etymology to help understand it thoroughly. Using the dumbed-down demands may seem great for kids, but adults are supposed to be "of age" in the faith.

You are without excuse for your infancy and false doctrines.
If someone asked me if I heard the good news I would ask which good news? As to gospel being good news that is the definition of it. If I wanted to get specific about which good news, I would ask you, What is the gospel of your salvation?".

You did. And repenatance is a NOUN. YOU don't "do" it. It's granted by God. You make that and everything else a work, and then go on to worship the dead letters instead of knowing what words mean in translation.
Where have I said repentance is something we "do"? I haven't. Acknowledging the truth is not a work!

And that wouldn't be so horrific if you weren't always condescending to everyone else and pretending you're a soldier for the faith that you actually despise and don't know it.
One that endures hardness, as a good soldier of Jesus Christ is one that does not entangle themselves in the affairs of this life that they may please Him Who hath chosen him to be a soldier (2 Timothy 2:3-4 KJV). And look at you wrapping yourself up in the so called "the Greek" and fighting with ambassadors for Christ committed the word of reconciliation. That's a bad fight!

No, you're not at all. All you're concerned with is a Dr. Seuss reading of English while ignoring translation.
Studying to shew thyself approved unto God (2 Timothy 2:15 KJV) would be impossible without all scripture. I have it. Where's yours?

I am. You don't care about it at all or you'd stop standing for untruth based on English vagueries you've turned into false perceptions and bad doctrine.
That's not even a word and you're calling me out on believing the pure words of the Lord and holding fast the form of sound words that I have heard of Paul? :crackup:


I'm the one who does. YOU think sins (hamartiai) are sins (hamartemata), and don't know the difference.
Did Christ die for YOUR sins as in your offences?
 
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Grosnick Marowbe

New member
Hall of Fame
That's metamellomai, not metanoeo. Just as I said. It's an insufficient repentance unto salvation that is only selfish regret and remorse.

This is the only response needed to your satanic Deconstructionist drivel. You don't know what repentance is or means; just like you don't know that sins (hamartemata) aren't sins (hamartiai).

I and others may need to revert to considering you MADs reprobates since you won't be corrected by truth.

:rotfl:
 

patrick jane

BANNED
Banned
MADs are all Judases. They've selfishly regretted (metamellomai, not metanoia/metanoeo) their sins (hamartemata, not hamartiai) as a work, just as they've believed as a work. And none of it is according to the report (hearing - the thing heard) by means of God's Word. Just like Judas.
MAD does not selfishly regret our sins and believing is not a work. We know the Bible better than you, get over it
 

musterion

Well-known member
He says in Isaiah “My counsel shall stand “and my will shall be brought to pass." (Isa. xlvi. 10.) Is there a schoolboy who does not understand what is meant by these words [counsel, will, brought to pass, stand]? (Luther, Bondage of the Will, Part I; section xi; p. 36)

You are looking for a knot in a bulrush. These expressions do not make Scripture obscure, or such as must be modulated according to the varieties of the hearer; except that some people are fond of making obscurities where there are none. These are matters of grammar: the sentiment is expressed in figurative words; but those, such as even schoolboys understand. (Luther, Bondage of the Will, Part I; section xxv; p. 77)



But what did Luther know. Stupid Luther.
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
I believe every inspired by God word in the all scripture of the King James Bible I hold in my hands as I 2 Timothy 2:15 KJV whether or not I fully understand what I have read at that moment. I believe every word. I do not agree with mistranslation and misinterpretation of any of it.

This is an egregious lie, or you wouldn't insist on the doctrines you hold that are your own mistranslation and mininterpretation of it.

I've called attention to many words you've misdefined, and you obliviously ignore those mistranslations and misinterpretations. You misdefine repentance and sins, for a start. And you don't know the difference between nouns and verbs, wrongly inferring nouns to be verbs.

In a recent post, you referred to Romans 10:17 "So then, faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the Word of God." Like most, you interpret "hearing" to be a verb. It's a noun. It's a verb.

The same is true of a large portion of passages in scripture in various manners. And all it would take would be some basic grammar and word study to begin to correct. But NOOOOOOOOOO.... You MADs can't and won't do that. You insist that however you read it is what it has to mean, even if many words in translation are a best compromise.

You've tried to bludgeon me several times with certain English words in translation that don't mean what you insist they mean. Like "Be not removed from the simplicity that is in Christ..."

Simplicity is rendered from haplotes. And it doesn't mean simplicity in the sense you automatically presume as a lack of complexity. And haplotes is translated with several different English words in several other passages.

But once again, you had to pummel someone with your false conceptual English presumption by insisting simplicity was a lack of complexity, etc. And it isn't.

You and your peers do this CONSTANTLY. It taints every doctrine you adhere to. It's pathetic. There are lexicons, and others in the faith to consult for clarity. But you reject any who would do so. You have no idea how many times this happens, because it happens almost every time you reference a scripture. And if it isn't a wrong definition, it's faulty grammar.

An example of terms being defined in a KJB is Ephesians 1:13 KJV. According to the verse, the word of truth is the gospel of your salvation! See how easy that was? We can believe the Bible without your high falutin words and speeches!

But you don't know what truth is. They're not MY "high falutin words and speeches". They ARE the bible. They ARE the text. Your generalizations are presumptions. And that's how you end up being a horrific heretic, bolstered by a group of other heretics on TOL that refuse to attend any local fellowship. You're too good for a local church body.

The point is, we have all scripture in English in a King James Bible and the terms are defined therein.

No, they're not. They're just words in the text that you presume to mean whatever general application and definition they may or may not have. You're clueless about translation and interpretation. There are strict guidelines for it to be accruate. You violate every one of them. Any translator would consider you to be naive and in gross error.

There’s no need to Greek it out (especially since we don’t read, speak or study Greek) when it’s all right in front of us perfect and preserved (Psalms 12:6-7 KJV) to be believed, studied, and meditated upon in English!

The text isn't the problem. Your language-sculpted heart and mind is the problem. Language has extreme effects on foundational functionality of the mind. The very structure of how thoughts are processed is greatly affected by language constructs. Your false simplicity is just being naive and gullible and arrogant. You have an entitlement that you will always understand scripture by casually skimming the words by reading.

Every time I spend time teaching individual words, every last person realizes the same thing. They previously had NO idea whatsoever what ANY words really mean from an English translation of scripture. What that means is the qualitites of definition are so great, they really had no understanding of the words. Every time. Every word.

You're like a preschooler who thinks they actually know what words in your language mean. And you surely don't know what they mean from translation.

I believe “all scripture” so your “depising inspired scripture” won’t fly here.

It's soaring at 60,000 feet, actually. You may not despise the book, but you despise the true meanings that you insist have to be your inferred meanings without understanding translation details, etc. You desise scripture. You love the script. Just like the Pharisees, which you are.

And speaking of all scripture; I have all scripture in the King James Bible I hold in my hands. Where is your “all scripture”? Where can I pick up the “all scripture” you have that I can 2 Timothy 2:15 KJV?

Same place. I just reference where they came from. Your KJV didn't just appear. There is a history and heritage behind that precious translation. And YOU are the one who despises it in favor of your conceptual generalized garbage understanding from personal preference without correction.

Every time you or any other MAD has misapplied a scripture in ignorance of word meaning and I've corrected it, you lambast and assault ME for your own ignorance and arrogance. Every time anyone corrects your false interpretations and definitions, it becomes a dust storm of typical MAD bulldozing.

Never once has a MAD been corrected and received it. You couldn't admit you're wrong (and you're VERY wrong) about what you claim is simply words right in front of you.

You don't even know what SINS means. You think sins (hamartiai) is sins (hamartemata). They're not the same thing. And all your other MAD minions are the same beligerent self-righteous paragons of error.

Yes, I do (this is fun!). I believe every word as the pure words of the Lord. Those who build on the foundation a wise master builder Paul laid (1 Corinthians 3:10-15 KJV) and approve things that are excellent (Philippians 1:9-10 KJV) by 1 Corinthians 2:13 KJV and 2 Timothy 2:15 KJV will not be ashamed. No mention of knowing the “the Greek” there.

The Greek text isn't going to mention itself and its language, fool. You don't believe the words for what they actually mean, even though you presume you do.

And yes, I believe sins are sins and that Christ died for them all in our place (Romans 4:25 KJV, 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV)! They are gone (Colossians 2:11-13 KJV)!

And... You have no idea that you are ignorantly conceptualizing hamartemata (sins) as hamartiai (sins). You're clueless what the difference is, and it's a monumental difference. It affects your false soteriology doctrine, and many other things.

You're proudly antinomian when Jesus Christ IS the Law. That's because you don't know what law is, either. You deny the law of the Spirit of life in Christ because you don't know what words mean.

This isn't just MADs, but MADs are especially oblivious and beligerent about this in their ignorant and arrogance heretical false doctrines.

Do you believe that Christ died for your sins as in your offences?

There you go attempting to define words inaccurately again, and then trying to frame salvation on them.

If you knew what sins (hamartiai) meant, you wouldn't have formed that last sentence as a question. And you'll dismiss it and go on, taunting everyone that your question was unanswered. That's the MAD tactics of obfuscation and distraction.

You haven't even repented (metanoeo) of your sins (hamartiai). All you've done is repent (metamellomai) of your sins (hamartemata). You have no idea what Jesus died for. AND... You believe something else in its place.

I believe the Holy Ghost got it right (2 Peter 1:21 KJV)! It says "this grace" and it's a specific grace as in the unsearchable riches of Christ to these "you Gentiles" (Ephesians 2:11-12 KJV,Ephesians 3:1-9 KJV). It’s all there in black and white!

Misapplied, as always. And you don't know what grace is or means. You dont' believe the Holy Ghost. You believe your own thoughts and perceptions about what you project from your own mind.

You're a Reductionist, never caring what the explicit meaning was behind the words given by God through the Holy Spirit for scripture. You only care what you presume your doctrine is, and you're employing Confirmation Bias and Cognitive Dissonance every moment of your paltry pseudo-life as a rank schismatic promoting false doctrines every time you speak.

As I said before, I worship God in spirit and in truth (John 4:24 KJV)

NO. NO. NO. You don't know truth IS. That's the problem. But you sure insist you do.

and as God magnified His word above all His name (and there are three that bear record in heaven 1 John 5:7 KJV) as is written in Psalms 138:2 KJV, I do too proclaim!

You think you're doing God a service. You're not doing what you presume and proclaim. Your heart doesn't agree with scripture. You think it does because of your surface understanding.

You're not even an authentic Trinitarian. You're a functional Tritheist. And you know no better.

You're imagining the "imaginable". You babble on and on telling us how words don’t really mean what they say and that we cannot believe the words of the Lord in a King James Bible. You are a fool!

You're the fool, by far. You don't believe your KJV. You believe what you THING your KJV says because of your doctrine you've read into it. You don't even know what "sins" means. Or grace. Or faith. You think nouns are verbs in many places.

:rotfl:

No, you haven’t.

Yes. And have just done it again above. You just can't hear because you don't have ears to hear.

All scripture in a King James Bible is my final authority. What’s yours? Where is it? Where can I get mine? Surely you have it the way you talk down to everyone.

It's the same KJV you refer to. Except I reference what every last word and grammatical structure means so I'm not deceived by false concepts when I read it.

I never refer to anything other than the KJV. But I do so from an interlinear perspective of the texts the KJV is translated from. You despise the foundation of the KJV and don't even know it in your pride. Everything I say is from the pre-translation KJV. You despise the very pillars of the translation you worship.

Yes, I have been and what’s more, I believe the words of the Lord whereas you explain them away! It is you who hates all scripture that IS inspired by God.

Hilarious and oblivious. The KJV came from somewhere AS as English translation. You think I'm referring to scraps of parchments from caves gathered up and glued together or something. I'm referring the text from which the KJV was directly translated into English and that whole process.

You're defending the KJV against the KJV. You're insisting the English translation determines what the donor language said. It's beyond laughable.

You think I'm talking about something besides the KJV and its origins. I'm not. I'm talking about the KJV. I just don't presume God dropped the KJV out of the sky and each English word stands alone without having to represent what it was translated from.

There's no greater egomania that you're exhibiting.

Paul's grace as in the grace that Paul preached! It is unlike that preached by Peter and the boys! None of us are waiting for the “grace” that “should come unto you” (1 Peter 1:10 KJV), Are we? No we are not! We have a standing in “this grace” by the faith of Jesus Christ (Romans 5:1-2 KJV) and it was Paul who was made a minister, according to the gift of the grace of God given unto him by the effectual working of God’s power (Ephesians 3:7 KJV). Unto Paul was “this grace” given (Ephesians 3:6 KJV) that he should preach among the Gentiles (specifically these Gentiles Ephesians 2:11-12 KJV, Ephesians 3:1-2 KJV) the unsearchable riches of Christ (Ephesians 3:8 KJV). Without the gospel given to Paul of “this grace” Gentiles such as we had no hope! But God and but now, baby (Ephesians 2:4-9 KJV, Ephesians 2:13 KJV)!

More conceptual mishandling of scripture. I know what you're TRYING to say. But you make it a convolution that you THINK is simple and direct. It would take volumes to correct your false interpretation. You think you've searched out the unsearchable riches of Christ, but all you've done is find a vein of fool's gold that you don't have to settle for.

You're as blind as the Pharisees, and they didn't have the New Testament as witness.

In what century was Paul committed a dispensation of the gospel? How about the dispensation of God? And the dispensation of the grace of God?

He wasn't. He was hypostatically translated into Christ as joint-heir. The heir is the only steward. Paul was merely a co-steward. And it wasn't "a" dispensation in a sequence. It was "the" dispensation. There's only one oikonomia after the first oikonomia of the Father. That's the Son's.

If you understood ONE basic grammar issue, you wouldn't say ANYTHING you say. ONE grammatical fact. ONE.

And what doctrine did he command Timothy to charge some that they teach no other (1 Timothy 1:3 KJV)? The answer is easy: no other doctrine than: 2 Timothy 1:13 KJV, 2 Timothy 2:2 KJV! I charge you the same!

I don't teach any other. You do. But you flip the script in ignorance.

I asked you
How long does one have to study the "the Greek" before they can be saved?
Which you say it isn’t so there’s no hope for anyone unless they know “the Greek”.

No. I clearly insisted one has to know what the English means ACCORDING TO ITS TRANSLATION FROM GREEK. That's a big difference. You make this into a monumental sidebar when it's the simple direct truth of how one knows what scripture says.

You've already said repeatedly (all your life) that "hearing" in Romans 10:17 is a verb. It's a noun.

What a crock! God will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth (1 Timothy 2:4-6 KJV)

Right. And you refuse. You don't even know what word for knowledge is used, so you presume yours is it. It's not.

and the gospel that is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth is easy enough for a child to understand!

Yes. Unless they grow to be adults and defend the "believeth" as something they did as a verb as a work and they don't have faith because they did it as a work by themselves from idiot adults coaching them to do something to be saved.

So it's easy for a child to MISunderstand, too. And that's what's happening by the millions.

I have all scripture to tell me what they mean. I’m not about to take your word for anything as you don’t even believe what saith the scripture.

It's the opposite and inverse. You believe lies and do your own works to be saved. And you deny the law of the spirit of life in Christ with your Antinomianism.

Faith cometh by hearing and hearing by the word of God (Romans 10:17 KJV). Once again, not the “the Greek”.

"Hearing" is a noun. It's not a verb. Just like faith. Faith is a noun. It's not a verb.

Simple truths, straight from English without misrepresentation like you. They're nouns. You don't believe to be saved. You don't hear to have faith. They're not verbs. They're nouns. You refuse this simple ENGLISH truth; so you don't worship Him in Spirit and in truth.

You are out of mind. I believe no such thing. I know and whole heartedly believe Titus 3:5 KJV. I know salvation is by grace through faith (Ephesians 2:8-9 KJV).

No. You think faith is a verb. You think you believe, and that work is what saved you. Just like repentance. It's a noun, too.

Actually, it is the gospel of the grace of God (the same good news that Christ died for our sins and that He was buried and rose again the third day as declared in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth (Romans 1:16 KJV). Technically, no longer the gospel of Christ to the Jew first and also to the Greek, but the gospel of the grace of God (Acts 20:24 KJV) to all men (1 Timothy 2:4-6 KJV, Titus 2:11 KJV).
And it does so by the noun of hearing, out of which the noun of faith comes.
One trusts the Lord after hearing and believing the word of truth, the gospel of our salvation (Ephesians 1:13 KJV).

No. Not by hearing and believing. Those are verbs you made up to replace nouns.

Which is where? Where can we all get one?

The non-English origins of your KJV, from which it was translated. You don't even know what I've been talking about all this time. It's the KJV. From its non-English source.

THE KJV!!!! Now what, ignoramus? I've been talking about the non-English source of your KJV itself that you despise.

My report is that the gospel Paul declares in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV is the gospel by which we are saved! That is not a false report!

But your false conceptual interpretation of it IS a false report. The scripture is the Gospel, in affirmation of many other passages. You just misrepresent it. You replace your false concept of "sins" for "sins" everywhere you see the English word.

It’s the word of truth, the gospel of our salvation (Ephesians 1:13-14 KJV)!

Psalms 12:6-7 KJV, Proverbs 30:5 KJV

I don't care what you or they think. I'm only interested in what saith the scripture.

No. You're only interested in what saith yourself and MAD doctrine while presuming it is what saith the scripture.

You despise the non-English source of your KJV. The direct source.

You trust and believe in your own works of hearing and believing to save you.
 
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PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
If someone asked me if I heard the good news I would ask which good news? As to gospel being good news that is the definition of it. If I wanted to get specific about which good news, I would ask you, What is the gospel of your salvation?".

Where have I said repentance is something we "do"? I haven't. Acknowledging the truth is not a work!

One that endures hardness, as a good soldier of Jesus Christ is one that does not entangle themselves in the affairs of this life that they may please Him Who hath chosen him to be a soldier (2 Timothy 2:3-4 KJV). And look at you wrapping yourself up in the so called "the Greek" and fighting with ambassadors for Christ committed the word of reconciliation. That's a bad fight!

It's the inverse. You're not ambassadors for Christ. And MADs fight everyone else who doesn't have their heretical doctrines. You're not fighting for what you presume you are. You're deceived. You're not a soldier at all, much less a good one.

Studying to shew thyself approved unto God (2 Timothy 2:15 KJV) would be impossible without all scripture. I have it. Where's yours?

Mine is the pre-English KJV. Now what? You despise the very source of your English version.

And "study" doesn't mean study as you presume it means. Just another of thousands of examples of your ignorance and lack of truth.

That's not even a word and you're calling me out on believing the pure words of the Lord and holding fast the form of sound words that I have heard of Paul? :crackup:

https://en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/vaguery

Wrong again, as always.

Did Christ die for YOUR sins as in your offences?

Use the correct definition of sins and ask again. Wrong question. But you don't even know that. "Sins" (hamartemata) is what you're referring to, so no. But did Jesus Christ did for all my "sins" (hamartiai)? Yes, indeed.

You are blinder than blind. You've entangled yourself in the affairs of this life. False linguistic understanding of the pre-English source for your KJV.

Pitiful.
 

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
You are blinder than blind. You've entangled yourself in the affairs of this life.

More irony.

A child can understand what sin/sins is.

Give it up.

Sister heir believes every word of her Holy Bible, written in 6th Grade English.

You could too, if you weren't so puffed up.

Tell us, what does "puffed up" really mean, in the "original Greek" that does not exist?
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
More irony.

A child can understand what sin/sins is.

He could if you idiots would define it correctly instead of how you do.

The problem is not the child or the plow boy or the school boy. It's how false meaning have been cultivated over time.

English is the best tool in the history of mankind for expression, as long as it is explicitly utilized for translation.

Give it up.

Sister heir believes every word of her Holy Bible, written in 6th Grade English.

No. None of you do.

And 6th Grade English is much too advanced for you toddlers.

You could too, if you weren't so puffed up.

Tell us, what does "puffed up" really mean, in the "original Greek" that does not exist?

Nice try, novice.
 

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
He could if you idiots would define it correctly instead of how you do.

The problem is not the child or the plow boy or the school boy. It's how false meaning have been cultivated over time.

English is the best tool in the history of mankind for expression, as long as it is explicitly utilized for translation.



No. None of you do.

And 6th Grade English is much too advanced for you toddlers.



Nice try, novice.

:chuckle:

Poor PPS.
 
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