CleverDan
New member
Beloved in the Lord. My wife, Cattyfan, has asked me to offer a perspective for the discussion you are having on whether Scripture is mandates the execution of adulterers and homosexuals.
Let me see if I understand the theological thought process: using Bible quotations such as Deuteronomy 22:25, posters like Lighthouse are saying that God’s civil law given to His chosen people, Israel, is still in effect, right?
Therefore, even if our country does not allow for the execution of adulterers and homosexuals, that God’s law prevails over any law our country has established, right?
And that if followers of God do not, at least advocate, the enforcement of these laws, then they are not being true Christians, right?
The fundamental assumption in interpreting and applying these verses is that each verse of Scripture is looked at without using other Bible verses to offer clarity, context, elaboration, and explanation. No Bible passage exists in an island of its own without another verse offering aid on interpretation.
One of the strongest Biblical principles I use to help me understand any verse in the Bible is that all Scripture points to Jesus Christ. He became incarnate as man not only to pay the price for our sins with His life, but during His earthly ministry corrected misinterpretations and misapplications of what we call the Old Testament Law.
So certainly Jesus, as God-Man, could have decided to execute the prostitute in John 8: 3-11 (or at the very least have His heavenly Father do that.) But Christ did not even call for the adulterous man to be brought forward. What’s up with that? Was Christ not violating His own Word by not following Deuteronomy 22:23-24, Leviticus 20:10. Did He not live a perfect life? If He did, why didn’t He follow His own Word? Could not have Christ said that His law outranked Roman law?
Or could it be that the verses in Deuteronomy and Leviticus were civil laws that applied only to the theocracy that God set up in the nation of Israel that no longer existed as a sovereign nation, because God had pronounced His judgment against them due to their unrepentant sin? Therefore, Christ’s actions were in accordance with His Father’s will in that the earthly rulers in that area forbid the Jews from executing their own civil law. Therefore, Christ’s goal in John 8:3-11 was not execute the woman for her sin nor to excuse the women’s behavior, but to point out how quickly other sinners wanted to kill another sinner instead of offering her the chance to repent of her sin and turn toward God. Christ brought the women to repentance, forgave her, and sent her on her way exhorting her to leave her life of sin. Christ's example becomes our example.
Let me see if I understand the theological thought process: using Bible quotations such as Deuteronomy 22:25, posters like Lighthouse are saying that God’s civil law given to His chosen people, Israel, is still in effect, right?
Therefore, even if our country does not allow for the execution of adulterers and homosexuals, that God’s law prevails over any law our country has established, right?
And that if followers of God do not, at least advocate, the enforcement of these laws, then they are not being true Christians, right?
The fundamental assumption in interpreting and applying these verses is that each verse of Scripture is looked at without using other Bible verses to offer clarity, context, elaboration, and explanation. No Bible passage exists in an island of its own without another verse offering aid on interpretation.
One of the strongest Biblical principles I use to help me understand any verse in the Bible is that all Scripture points to Jesus Christ. He became incarnate as man not only to pay the price for our sins with His life, but during His earthly ministry corrected misinterpretations and misapplications of what we call the Old Testament Law.
So certainly Jesus, as God-Man, could have decided to execute the prostitute in John 8: 3-11 (or at the very least have His heavenly Father do that.) But Christ did not even call for the adulterous man to be brought forward. What’s up with that? Was Christ not violating His own Word by not following Deuteronomy 22:23-24, Leviticus 20:10. Did He not live a perfect life? If He did, why didn’t He follow His own Word? Could not have Christ said that His law outranked Roman law?
Or could it be that the verses in Deuteronomy and Leviticus were civil laws that applied only to the theocracy that God set up in the nation of Israel that no longer existed as a sovereign nation, because God had pronounced His judgment against them due to their unrepentant sin? Therefore, Christ’s actions were in accordance with His Father’s will in that the earthly rulers in that area forbid the Jews from executing their own civil law. Therefore, Christ’s goal in John 8:3-11 was not execute the woman for her sin nor to excuse the women’s behavior, but to point out how quickly other sinners wanted to kill another sinner instead of offering her the chance to repent of her sin and turn toward God. Christ brought the women to repentance, forgave her, and sent her on her way exhorting her to leave her life of sin. Christ's example becomes our example.