You are free to post them again, but then we might have to go through them word by word and define the words.Cobra,
Allow me to make two things clear: I think you are a good person. I am sure that you mean well,
and if not, you obscure it well enough (unlike others such as Pate). The second thing;
it would be more productive if you provided where you disagree with the two definitions of inerrancy that I provided in my return post. If I need to, I can provide both quotes again.
I think that just going back and forth on specific verses is not really addressing the topic issue. We are focusing on the trees and not the forest.
I prefer to simply state that calling the scriptures “inerrant” carries with it a claim that there are no errors of fact in the Bible.
Any doctrine of inerrancy that allows errors of fact is misnamed, and I would view that doctrine as deceitfully misnamed.
So specific verses that have errors of fact are exceedingly relevant, in my opinion.
Does your definition of inerrancy allow the scriptures to have errors in facts?
I don’t know why the Roman Catholic Church adopted the fiction of the perpetual virginity of Mary. The document that I mentioned is just the earliest instance of the myth that I have seen.Alas, I will respond to your previous post, though.
Great, so we agree that the Proto of James is fictional. So does the Catholic Church. So, why would the Church base a doctrine on a fictional work? Especially considering that the Church is the one that pronounced as a falsehood?
My evidence is both contextual and church history.My entire argument against Jesus' having brothers is contextual evidence, found within the Jewish culture. If you are unaware of this custom, of referencing close relatives such as cousins as "brothers," then you are ignorant of Hebrew custom. This is not a personal attack; it is simply pointing out that you are uneducated on a piece of evidence that explains doctrine (Perpetual Virginity).
You also are ignoring cross-referenced verses/passages, which refer to close relatives as "brother" or "sister," such as Mary, mother of James, being called Mary's (mother of Jesus) "sister." One could also reference Lot being called Abraham's "brother."
In addition, the parentage of those listed as Jesus' "brothers" can be found in various other passages of Scripture, in Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John, specifically.
The people is the hometown of Jesus taking umbrage to him, in context, would have meant his brothers and sisters.
Who said He did?Where does the Lord's brother call himself the sibling of Jesus? I admit, I am ignorant of such a claim.
Paul called James the Lord’s brother.
Eusebius call James the Lord’s brother and the son of Joseph.
It was after 300, when a bishop of the church wrote his history identifying James as the Lord’s brother and as a son of Joseph, that this myth about Mary was fully implemented.
I find you have far exceeded the elastic limit of the truth.Allow me, one last time, to explain the paradox in your argument in regards to siblings of Jesus:
Your entire premise and proof lies within single words, from books which you do not consider inerrant; meaning that if one applies your argument of potential errors to these specific instances of sibling labeling, your argument fails.
You have reverted to “if the scriptures are not inerrant, then nothing they say is reliable.”
I did avoid this question, until we had (hopefully) resolved the prior one. One factor into why I did this was because of my answer.
If you are ignorant of Jewish customs and festivals, then it would be unfruitful to even try to explain the passage of John 7. If you are educated in such culture, then you would have readily understood my points regarding Jesus' "brothers," Mary's "sister," and would not even have posed a question regarding John 7.
So, here is my brief answer, without explaining customs: Did Jesus go to the festival? Yes, but not on the opening day. Did Jesus misrepresent His intentions? No. He told the disciples to go ahead (on opening days), in order that He may avoid publicity, which would account for His later arrival in the festival (thus, avoiding the Sanhedrin, and any immediate publicity).
I find your claim that Jesus did not misrepresent His intentions disappointing. Jesus told them that He was not going to the festival. Then He did go. That is a misrepresentation.
And you read into the text things not said. You claim He did not go on opening day. That is not in the text.
Consider how your dedication to your philosophy of Jesus is causing you to misstate the facts and to read into the text.
You are avoiding the question.Finally,
This here is your answer to my question of "If something is not inerrant, what is it?" You are avoiding the logical answer.
The opposite of Justice is Injustice. The opposite of Lawful is Unlawful (or Criminal). The opposite of Inerrant is Errant. If you believe the Scriptures are errant, why be so ashamed to openly admit that? It is because logically, one cannot depend on an errant source as a basis of truth and fact.
You have once again fallen into the trap of “it is inerrant or it is worthless.”
It is as much as saying “I believe the scriptures are inerrant because I have to. The alternative is too troublesome to me. So I must not look at specific errors that might burst my bubble.”
As for why I don’t say “the scriptures are errant,” it is the same reason that I don’t declare “my grandchildren have problems.” That is not the way in which I view the scriptures or my grandchildren. As I have said repeatedly, the scriptures are valuable and authoritative. They are not inerrant, and people should stop pretending they are and people should stop avoiding discussing the errors because they are not comfortable unless God gave them a perfect book.
So, if I show you an error in fact in a document written by people, are you going to claim that document is inerrant?The work of people can be inerrant. If I wrote a synopsis of my day, recalling details to the best of my ability, avoiding all falsehoods, then the work is inerrant. Any "insignificant error," such as spelling or numerical variation within reasonable limits, is just that: insignificant. It does not detract from the inerrant nature of the work. (I am sure there is some specific circumstance which can thrown in which would magically render such a synopsis errant; such points are niggling at best and are argumentative in nature, seeking not truth but combat)
I counted three questions in this post. The second is rhetorical. I request answers to the other two.
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