Since the esteemed Bob Enyart apparently is keeping track of this thread at the time I am writing this, I feel as though I am in need of some sort of introduction:
I have a B.A. in philosophy with a minor in Latin.
I presently am pursuing an M.A. in philosophy with a heavy emphasis on medieval philosophy, and, in particular, St. Thomas Aquinas.
My main interests are the Greek Neoplatonists, and when I have free time for my own reading, I tend to read St. Augustine and Kant. That said, I've read the entirety of Plato's
Complete Works and Plotinus'
Enneads as translated by Stephen MacKenna.
It is particularly in light of my Platonic interests that I feel as though I can be of some help in answering the problems presented in this thread.
Here is a biblical PROOF that GOD IS IN TIME and experiences change in sequence:
To clarify: What is meant by "time"? We use the word so often, but so few of us really stop and consider what is meant by the time. At any rate, you've associated time with sequential change, which at any rate makes my job easier.
In the "eternal state" before the foundation of the world God the Son was not also the SON OF MAN; then He "became" flesh as "the Son of Man" and so the Son remains eternally "the Man Jesus Christ" (1 Tim 2:5).
This does not follow (I am aware that you set it up in order to be refuted and so to answer the refutations). That said, Mr. Enyart, there was no need for you to go this route. You just as easily could have appealed to the creation of the world. Clearly, if God created the world in time, then God must likewise be in time.
If you assert that this is so, then it applies to the Incarnation also. If you deny that this is so, then there is no reason why the reasoning should apply in the case of the Incarnation. If it is the case that God is able to create in time without Himself being in time, then we can say the same equally both in the case of the Incarnation and in the case of the creation of the world.
Clearly, though, this does not follow. If you assert that God exists in time, but you assert that the world has a beginning, you must confess that God temporally was present prior to the creation of the world. Which begs the question...
What was God doing before He created the world?
In fact, if you admit that the world had a beginning in time and that God likewise has a temporally infinite existence, then you must confess a further absurdity: an infinite amount of time elapsed prior to the creation of the world. If this is the case, then I must confess that two things are the case:
1. God is awefully lazy if He spent an infinite amount of time just hanging before He finally got around to creating the world. Your God is far more slothful than any Democrat I've ever met.
2. Even worse: if an infinite amount of time elapsed prior to the creation of the world, then, in fact, you must confess that it is impossible that this world should exist at all. It's impossible to traverse an actual infinity. If an infinite amount of time elapsed prior to the creation of the world, then God would still be waiting to create the world.
Many theologians reject this proof that God is in time. Why? They claim that their historical-grammatical
hermeneutic, that is, their primary method of interpretation, proves that God is not in time. So let's look at the relationship of God and time.
I don't reject the argument on these grounds. I reject the idea of a temporal God because natural reason abhors such an idea. I reject the argument because it simply doesn't follow. God doesn't have to undergo change in assuming a human nature any more than the subject "I" (as a noumenal existence) has to undergo change by experiencing a multitude of phenomena (representations in the mind...say, this computer).
Of course NOT ONE of these phrases are in the Bible. They're from Plato. And they're uncritically repeated by Christians in various systematic theology textbooks.
This is no reason to reject the idea. Note that St. Augustine incorporates the Greek idea, and I'm sure that this teaching is present in the other church fathers. If anything, your philosophically untrained eyes are hindering you from understanding even the theological truths of the Bible.
Consider John 1:1-14. To assert that the Logos of which St. John speaks here underwent a change in the incarnation is completely to miss the meaning of "Logos" in this case. Why "Logos"? Hint: Philo of Alexandria used the same word. Hint: Philo of Alexandria read the
Timaeus.
Of course ALL THESE are verbatim quotes from Scripture and NOT ONE MEANS TIMELESSNESS.
This is a poor argument. You are missing 1. the possibility of metaphorical/colloquial meaning (apparently temporal phrases used to denote non-temporal meanings) and 2. that even if 1 is false, you're still missing the probability that the language used to convey the ideas is deficient.
The human philosophy of the pagan Greeks (which
Augustine admited that he adapted to Christian theology), assumes that God exists outside of time, something the language of Scripture could easily present if that were God's intention.
Neither St. Augustine nor the Platonists assume this at all. This is a conclusion, not a premise. Consider reading book XI of
Confessions. If we say that God either is
esse ipse subsistens (subsistent being) or something greater than that, then it must follow that God is eternal. How can you add to or diminish pure being? Anything you add to being must exist; therefore it's already present. Diminish pure being? Even more bizarre.
including those moments before creation
This is nonsense. What was God doing for the forever "before" He created the world? Twiddling His metaphorical thumbs?
The second person of the Trinity, God the Son, was not OF MAN through eternity past. Neither David, nor Adam, nor any of us, were necessary for God to be God. But the second person of the Trinity is now Jesus, the SON OF MAN.
The second person of the Trinity is "now" Jesus
relative to the created order.
Christians desperate to win an argument that God is outside of time will even flirt with the unbiblical claim that God the Son was always a man, from eternity past.
There's simply no need to assert this. The human nature is created and finite. The Logos is not.
"...the spiritual is not first, but the natural, and afterward the spiritual. The first man was of the earth… the second Man is the Lord from heaven." 1 Cor. 15:46
I fail to see why this verse says what you want it to. I grant you that, in the course of time, Adam was born prior to Christ. I grant that. What I deny is that God undergoing this moment of history (the Incarnation, namely, which happens after Adam) actually effects a change on the part of the Divine Word. There's simply no reason to assert this.
In defending their position, such theologians claim that Open Theists confuse Christ's humanity with His divinity. However, there are not four persons of the trinity, as is implied by such objections. His humanity did not become human. It is the eternal God the Son who became flesh.
This shows a poor understanding of what happened in the Incarnation. In the Incarnation, The Logos assumed a human nature. This is what is meant by the "hypostatic unity." The second person of the Blessed Trinity has two natures: one created, the other uncreated, one human, the other divine. They are brought in to a hypostatic unity insofar as they both inhere in the person of the Word.
From this, it is evident why your argument is an utter non sequitur.
To defend Platonic utter immutability those who hold the Settled View will deny that God has the freedom even to think new thoughts.
How imperfect is your God that He has to think new thoughts? Is He so imcompetent, naive and unintelligent that He's "missing" something?
So what do they get in trade for God's freedom? They can claim that before the criminal was ever born, God decided how often to rape that child and how filthy each time would be, "all for His glory and pleasure" including the rapist being beat to death in prison.
This is a gross misrepresentation of our view. But, before I defend what's actually our view, I feel the need to point out: In order to avoid the conclusion that God somehow is "in on" the crime, you simply wish to assert that God didn't know that it's happening? Some God you believe in.
But on the contrary: you and I both assert that God created the world. You and I both assert, I can only assume, that God is supremely good and rational. From this it follows that He created the best of all possible worlds. If this is the case, then surely, He must have known all possible configurations of all possible worlds; if not, how could He have chosen? Why create the world this way rather than that?
What a shoddy artificer your God is! :nono:
When pressed, as in the above debate, many theologians will admit that Sovereignty is NOT an eternal attribute of God. That is a valid position, for otherwise, God's very existence would be dependent upon the creation.
There is a twofold distinction that must be drawn. Insofar as God has eternally chosen to create the world in time, then God is eternally sovereign in relation to the world that He's chosen from all eternity to create. The very term "sovereign," however, is relative to us. In Himself, this is an inadequate predication.
Just as Adam is not necessary for God to be God (as he would have been if the Son of God were also the Son of Man, eternally) so too if the
quantitative attribute of exhaustive foreknowledge is required for God to be God, then the one reading this sentence at this very moment would also be a necessary prerequisite for God to be God, for God could not then exist apart from each and every one of us being and doing and thinking everything in fact that we've been and done and thought.
You misunderstand what exhaustive foreknowledge is and what the formal object of that foreknowledge is. In knowing everything, God isn't knowing the world. Note that if you set it up this way, you have to admit that God exists in time. If God knows the world directly, and the world only exists in time, then God's knowledge is temporal.
But this is false. The object of God's knowledge is Himself. In knowing everything, what God actually knows is His own essence. For Him to know all possible worlds is for Him to know all of the possible ways in which His Goodness could be participated in creation.
After all, if God is outside of time, then there is no difference to God in prayers for the future and those for the past, in praying for those living today and for those who died yesterday.
There's a contradiction involved, I think. The past is suppositionally necessary: "whatever is, insofar as it is, necessarily is." We know that God won't change the past precisely because the past happened; it only could have happened insofar as God willed and created it thus.
However, if Christ had been slain previously, before the foundation of the world, then there would have been no need for the righteous dead to wait in Abraham's Bosom "until the death of the one who is high priest in those days" (symbolizing Christ).
Christ was not slain previously to his having been slain. That's ridiculous. What is meant is that God foreknew from all eternity that Christ should die on the cross for sinners. Nor does it follow that this means that the righteous dead would not need to wait.
This means that these evil men were not believers who had fallen away, but that their names were NEVER written in the book. (See a similar construct in Jeremiah 2:32.) Revelation 13:8 can even be seen as giving the title and sub-title of The Book of Life – Of the Lamb Slain.
God knew from all eternity who would believe and who would not. For what cause do you think that Christ wept in the garden? :idunno:
Neither men nor angles can be omnipresent, even in heaven, for they would thereby have to be divine. The same limitation would apply with timelessness. If God existed outside of time the angels before His throne ("who do not rest… saying, 'Holy, holy, holy, Lord God Almighty, Who was and is and is to come'") and the men ministering to Him forever would also have to be timeless, which would mean that they were divine also.
None of this follows.
And "In the beginning" does not mean in the beginning of time, for that's Augustine's interpretation based on Plato, but we have the Lord's interpretation based on Mark, for as Jesus said, the phrase means in "the beginning OF CREATION" (Mk. 10:6; Mat. 19:4).
Therefore God never could have created the world. Impossible to traverse an actual infinity and all that.