ECT Our triune God

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
was he sinless ? - was Job ? Moses ? Noah ? Abraham ?

No man but the Lord Jesus has ever lived a sinless life.

But what is your point?

Are you agreeing with Arsenios that the Lord Jesus was the second man, that there were no other men between Adam and the Lord Jesus?

Do you believe his ridiculous idea that Zacharias didn't count as a man even though he was righteous before God and was filled with the Holy Spirit (Lk.1:5-6, 67)?
 
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Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
I like you, Jerry. I really do.

If you like me then why do falsely accuse me of teaching Docetism?

And docetism is my very favorite heresy (and I mean that in all sincerity and I am NOT calling you a heretic but you lean heavily docetic.

I challenge you to quote anything I have said that demonstrates that I lean heavily docetic. Where I grew up in west Texas if anyone wants to make accusations against someone for doing something bad then they better have the evidence to back it up.

Where is your evidence, Soror?
 

Soror1

New member
Yes.

So here is a question: Was Jesus "inner man" in heaven created?

No, He has always been both Man and God. Were it otherwise then the following verse could not possibly be true:

"Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever" (Heb.13:8).​

Then in what sense was He man? (And do not say because He had an "inner man" because you have just affirmed that inner man was uncreated.)

Your use of "Man" here cannot in any sense be human. Humans are created.

The High Priest knew that the Lord Jesus was claiming to be God when He acknowledged that He is the Son of the Blessed, meaning the Son of the Blessed God. That is why he was charged with blasphemy.

And that is exactly what the Jews believed as well, as witnessed by the Lord Jesus here:

"Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?" (Jn.10:36).​

And the blasphemy they charged Him with for saying that He is the Son of God is this:

"We are not stoning you for any good work,” they replied, “but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God" (Jn.10:33).​

So not only the high priest but all the Jews at John 10 understood that when the Lord said that He is the Son of God they understood that He was claiming to be God. And that is why they charged Him with blasphemy and that is why the Jews wanted to kill Him (Jn.19:7).

With that understood it is easy to know that when the Lord used the term "Son of God" He was referring to Himself as God. And when He used the term "Son of Man" He was referring to Himself as Man.

66 When day came, the assembly of the elders of the people gathered together, both chief priests and scribes. And they led him away to their council, and they said, 67 “If you are the Christ, tell us.” But he said to them, “If I tell you, you will not believe, 68 and if I ask you, you will not answer. 69 But from now on the Son of Man shall be seated at the right hand of the power of God.” 70 So they all said, “Are you the Son of God, then?” And he said to them, “You say that I am.” 71 Then they said, “What further testimony do we need? We have heard it ourselves from his own lips.”​

Watch this development in Luke:

66 When day came, the assembly of the elders of the people gathered together, both chief priests and scribes. And they led him away to their council,​

He's in court at a Jewish legal trial where the prosecutors themselves are in a court of law and have to carefully establish their case.

and they said, 67 “If you are the Christ, tell us.”​

There is no blasphemy in claiming to be the Christ--there were many who did and many Jews followed them. The Jews were waiting for a Christ.

But he said to them, “If I tell you, you will not believe, 68 and if I ask you, you will not answer. 69 But from now on the Son of Man shall be seated at the right hand of the power of God.”​

This is a clear reference to Daniel (and see the other Gospels). Now remember He is at a trial so the council needs to be very careful. They didn't declare blasphemy yet because they had to establish for the court what He was claiming. (If we had it your way, he'd have said something like "the human being shall be seated at the right hand of the power of God" and so what? Audacious, yes, blasphemy, no.)

70 So they all said, “Are you the Son of God, then?”​

NOTICE THIS. "Then". Then. Because you said "from now on the Son of Man shall be seated at the right hand of the power of God."

What does Jesus now say?

And he said to them, “You say that I am.”
Why not just "yes"? Because He's also teaching them here. In other words, "you are correct that the Son of Man in Daniel is deity and Son of God"

Now the blasphemy is declared.

And these words prove that it was as Man that He came down from heaven, proving that He was Man before being born of Mary:

"And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven" (Jn.3:13).​

And the Lord Jesus says practically the same thing here:

"What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?" (Jn.6:62).​

What He is saying there can only mean one thing, that He was in heaven as Man prior to being born of Mary.

No, it cannot mean only one thing. "Son of man" does not mean only and exclusively man. There was no human being in heaven.

But for some reason you just cannot believe what He said.
For some reason you just cannot believe that He was really human!

Do you never tire of your metaphysical arguments? I prefer what is written in the Bible because I have no interest in speculation.

It is written in the Bible that "the Word was made flesh". Did the Word change when this happened?
 

Soror1

New member
If you like me then why do falsely accuse me of teaching Docetism?

I am not accusing you of teaching anything--unless you teach this in a leadership role in your church. We are here discussing.

I challenge you to quote anything I have said that demonstrates that I lean heavily docetic. Where I grew up in west Texas if anyone wants to make accusations against someone for doing something bad then they better have the evidence to back it up.

Where is your evidence, Soror?

You earlier said

"In eternity the Lord Jesus was both God and Man and He was a part of a "compound unity" and that unity made up the Godhead."​

You then said

"No, He has always been both Man and God."​

in answer to the question

So here is a question: Was Jesus "inner man" in heaven created?​

There is no human nature--which is created--here.
 

Soror1

New member
That is not true. If you think that you are right then quote me where I ever confused and mixed the divine and human nature.

You don't have a created human nature in your view. You have a divine nature only. A compound of a divine Man and God.

And you never answered this question of mine:

"And what, exactly, was done with Jesus' prior "man"/human nature when He became incarnate?"
 

Soror1

New member
Jerry, one more thing on the Daniel strand of this part of the thread.

Do you not wonder why Daniel is not considered a prophet in Judaism--the Book of Daniel is not classified in the Nevi'im (Prophets) but Ketuvim (Writings)?

Why is Daniel Not a Prophet?

I am often asked why the Book of Daniel is included in the Writings section of the Tanakh instead of the Prophets section. Wasn't Daniel a prophet? Weren't his visions of the future true?

According to Judaism, Daniel is not one of the 55 prophets. His writings include visions of the future, which we believe to be true; however, his mission was not that of a prophet. His visions of the future were never intended to be proclaimed to the people; they were designed to be written down for future generations. Thus, they are Writings, not Prophecies, and are classified accordingly. http://www.jewfaq.org/prophet.htm

Daniel is minimized because it establishes the deity of the son of man in it which the Rabbis considered heresy.
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
I have long referred to the Bible as God's Rubik's cube ... our problem is one of perspective ... we get one side the same color and think we've got the thing worked out.

This is another way of expressing what I've been referring to for some time.

All historical views of Theology Proper, including all declared anathemas and modern pursuits of corrective minutiae, ALL share the foundational flaw of uni-phenomenality while never accounting for multi-phenomenality.

Everyone has worked out the Rubik's Cube with a different color on one side, each presuming that color to be the correct means of "solving" the Cube while only accounting for one two-dimensional side of the three-deminensional "puzzle".

Meanwhile, the remaining unresolved sides are non-uniform and unresolved because of a shared central omission by all who have differently worked the Cube to their presumably preferred color-uniformity on only one side (perhaps also getting one or more other sides more complete than other views).

The "culprits" are:
not understanding multi-phenomenality, the lack of necessary emphasis on the created heaven, and the complete meaning of God's Rhema as "bookends" for God's Logos relative to His objective aseity and other incommunicable attributes.

God "formatted" His uncreated phenomenon to exist within created phenomenon. Anterior to the divine creative utterance, there was no where, when, or what. God created all where, when, and what; and His uncreated phenomenon is not ontologically "compatible" with created phenomenon.

It was His phenomenal/noumenal Logos which pierced and divided asunder (which is a partitioning for distribution, not separation) His noumenon as Spirit out from His phenomenon as Spirit; and both His Logos and Pneuma proceeded forth/proceedeth into creation when/as it was instantiated from noumenality into created phenomenality of existence.

Creation has its own objective reality of existence, but is subject to having been created; so God's objective reality of existence as Creator is still the only true Self-objective existence, though He gave true objective existence to creation. God's Rhema carried forth and is perpetually upholding creation, including heaven and the cosmos.

"Before" creation, there was only God; and there's no "before" for the timeless God. Imputing to, or superimposing upon, God ANY attribute of His creation is fallacious.

God is not innately where, when, or what. He created those and inhabited them by His Logos and Pneuma, expressed and exhaled when/as He spoke and breathed them.

The created heaven and cosmos are but the canvas for God's Self-portrait. The express image OF His (singular) uncreated hypostasis is His eternal Logos that rose forth from uncreated phenomenon into created phenomenon as the eternal Son. Same hypostasis, different phenonemon, and with a distinct prosopon in created phenomenon.

There's a sense of revelatory understanding in the Spirit to be able to see that once creation had a beginning, for God it didn't. Because He is timeless and interfaces with time as He is both external to it and internal within it. He's both no-when and every-when; and that's beyond simultaneity and concurrence, because those are time-based terms.

All historical uni-phenomenal views are fallacious. None can account for HOW God created heaven and the cosmos, and HOW God inhabited that creation as multi-omni, etc. That's because everyone has been content to work one side of the Rubik's Cube with their preferred color.

The Son and Holy Spirit are God's own eternal uncreated Self-Noumenal Logos and Pneuma, proceeded forth/proceedeth from Himself as Self-Noumenal Self-Phenomenality into created phenomenon. The Father is co-processed with His eternal set-apart Spirit and His eternal Son. The Son is NOT the Father, but is the eternal Logos of the Father.

Since the eternal noumenality of the Son is immanent to the uncreated Self-phenomenal and Self-noumenal Logos, the Son has "always" been. But for God, there is no "always".

Exerchomai/ekporeuomai was the qualitative two-fold procession of God's eternal uncreated Logos and Pneuma as the Son and Holy Spirit from uncreated phenomenon into created phenomenon. Same hypostasis. And the Holy Spirit has no individated prosopon in created phenomenon, "sharing" the prosopon of the Son with whom He co-inheres.

WE are the everlasting invidividated prosopon for the Holy Spirit by being in Christ NOW and ever more. But that's another delineation beyond all this.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Daniel is minimized because it establishes the deity of the son of man in it which the Rabbis considered heresy.

You are the one who brought up the book of Daniel and then you had nothing to say about my last answer to your points about the meaning of the term "the Son of Man" in that book. Why not?
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
I am still trying to sink ordinary teeth into this not ordinary at all multi-phenomenality you keep pointing to in the middle of the living room that nobody else is able to see at all except you alone...

So help me here, PPS... Can you give me some examples of this multi-phenomenality in terms of ordinary human experience? I am really having a hard time following a trail I cannot see... And when it comes to most trails, I tend to be a Bloodhound... But this spoor is elusive...

Arsenios

The ostension you're referring to above (bolded) is eluding you because you don't properly understand Rhema as "bookending" Logos for God.

The "words" Rhema is ostensibly pointing at "the thing thought and spoken about" Rhema, which is reasoned, comprehended, apprehended, and expressed by the Logos as the "words" Rhema; the former being the objective substantial reality of existence for the latter as the subject matter... the "words". Both the objective and the subjective, not just either/or.

Rhema > Logos > Rhema

That's why I keeping pointing (ostension) to something no one has ever accounted for appropriately.

And that means the Rhema is God's singular hypostasis. Because there was "no thing" (nothing) else TO think and speak about.

The Logos is the uttered forth eternal uncreated Rhema of God. The express image OF His (singular) hypostasis rising (heko) from uncreated phenomenon into created phenomenon, when/as created phenomenon is instantiated into existence.

Same hypostasis. One eternal prosopon as the Father in transcendence. One eternal prosopon in creation. The former in-shining into creation from transcendence as the unapproachable light in which the Father dwells. The Holy Spirit and Son co-inhere, giving both omnipresence and localized presence, "sharing" a singular prosopon.

This is why any may "appear" to Saints individually, but are not individuated uni-phenomenal hypostases.

The Holy Spirit is the set-apart noumenality of God from His innate phenomenality AS Spirit. The Logos is the intrinsic phenomenality for the Son as the eternal noumenality of the Logos.

Heaven and the cosmos were only noumenon, given phenomenon when uttered and breathed into existence.

Maybe you'll get a glimpse of the Rubik's Cube. One side (the Orthodox Trinity) is not the cube.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
You don't have a created human nature in your view. You have a divine nature only. A compound of a divine Man and God.

Please do not misrepresent my views. I said that the Lord Jesus is both Man and God from all eternity. And that is the only truth which can be reconciled to what is said about the Lord Jesus here:

"Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever" (Heb.13:8).​

You throw your reason to the wind and say that originally He had only one nature and then when he acquired another nature He did not change at all.

According to your ideas the Lord Jesus with one nature is exactly the same Lord Jesus with two natures!

And you never answered this question of mine:

"And what, exactly, was done with Jesus' prior "man"/human nature when He became incarnate?"

I answered that. I said that the "inner man" of the Man Jesus remained when He became incarnate.
 
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PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
The oddest thing is...

What Jerry's saying is an odd jacked-up interpretational glimpse of multi-phenomenality.

Since God knows the end before the beginning, the manhood of the Incarnate Christ existed "before" it came into existence.

All these jazzed-out weird concepts (including an alleged multi-hypostatic singular ousia) are just nominal peeks at timelessness through tiny lenses from time-constrained minds projecting creation parameters upon God while not wholly and revelatorily understanding His incommunicable attributes.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
For some reason you just cannot believe that He was really human!

There you go again!

I never said that the Lord Jesus was not human and you know it!

I have always said that the Lord Jesus was both God and Man from eternity. And that is the only truth which can be reconciled to what is said here:

"Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever" (Heb.13:8).​

You stand reason on its head because, according to you, the Lord Jesus originally had but one nature and then when He acquired another nature He remained the same.

According to your mixed up idea, the Lord Jesus with only one nature was exactly the same Jesus with two natures.

Now the blasphemy is declared.

I have already shown you EXACTLY why the Lord was accused of blasphemy and it was NOT because He claimed to be the Son of man, as you imagine You said:

Where is the blasphemy here?

But he remained silent and made no answer. Again the high priest asked him, “Are you the Christ, the Son of the Blessed?” 62 And Jesus said, “I am, and you will see the Son of Man seated at the right hand of Power, and coming with the clouds of heaven.” 63 And the high priest tore his garments and said, “What further witnesses do we need? 64 You have heard his blasphemy.

The high priest knew that the Lord Jesus was claiming to be God when He acknowledged that He is the Son of the Blessed, meaning the Son of the Blessed God. That is why he was charged with blasphemy. Not because He said that He is "Son of Man."

And that is exactly what the Jews believed as well, as witnessed by the Lord Jesus here:

"Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?" (Jn.10:36).​

And the blasphemy they charged Him with for saying that He is the Son of God is this:

"We are not stoning you for any good work,” they replied, “but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God" (Jn.10:33).​

So not only the high priest but all the Jews at John 10 understood that when the Lord said that He is the Son of God they understood that He was claiming to be God. And that is why they charged Him with blasphemy and that is why the Jews wanted to kill Him (Jn.19:7).

In regard to the term "Son of Man" you said:

No, it cannot mean only one thing. "Son of man" does not mean only and exclusively man. There was no human being in heaven.

According to your ideas when some heard the Lord Jesus say He was the "Son of Man" they thought that He was claiming to be God. And according to you when He used the term "Son of God" they didn't think that He was claiming to be God:

But, Jerry, consider Nathaniel:

“Rabbi, you are the Son of God! You are the King of Israel!”

If Nathaniel really understood "Son of God" to mean God he would have shut his trap and fell on his face. Just like those in the presence of other OT theophanies. We would expect something along the lines of Isaiah, "Woe is me for I am undone"

So according to you when some of the Jews who heard the Lord Jesus say He was the "Son of Man" they thought that He was claiming to be God and no one thought that when He said He is the "Son of God" that He was claiming to be God.

Of course these verses prove that the Lord Jesus was Man before He was born of Mary so you must somehow change the meaning of the term "Son of Man":

"And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven" (Jn.3:13).​

It was as Man that the Lord Jesus came down from heaven. That means that He was Man before He was born of Mary.And this verse teaches practically the same thing:

"What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?" (Jn.6:62).​

The Lord Jesus was in heaven as Man before He came down to earth and was born of Mary.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Since God knows the end before the beginning, the manhood of the Incarnate Christ existed "before" it came into existence.

Came into existence?

So according to you the Lord Jesus originally had only one nature and then at some point he acquired another nature.

But that is impossible because of what is said here:

"Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever" (Heb.13:8).​

Why don't you try reconciling your idea with what is said there?
 
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PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
Good evening, PPS! :)

Good morning/afternoon! :)

I'll try not to but you defined noumenon as "that which is conceived in the mind, but does not have any objective existence" so how can nothing (?) have any phenomenon?

God's Logos is both noumenon and phenomenon. The innate phenomenon is the objective existence for the noumenon. They cannot be separated.

Creation has no intrinsic phenomenon, only being given it by its Creator. So the pre-utterance noumenal creation has no phenomenon "until" it is carried forth and upheld by God's Rhema.

The Logos was with (pros, accusative) God. Toward, as in intensive focus. And the focused "thing thought and spoken about" by the Logos is the Rhema. Rhema is both the subjective realization as evidence AND the objective reality underlying the subjective. Logos is the means of conveying the objective (hypostasis) as the subjective.

This subjective is not an estimate as thought or imagining (dokei), but the actual substantial conveyance from objective reality to subjective representation (re-presentation), phenomenon to phenomenon. This re-presentation is the express image OF God's hypostasis as it rises/comes (heko) from uncreated phenomenality into created phenomenality with a prosopon that appears/shines that is distinct to created phenomenon.

Same hypostasis. Different phenomenon. Distinct prosopon. The Son is not the Father, being the Logos OF the Father.

I think if you define "objective existence" that would help.

God's objective existence is distinct from creation's objective existence, for all created objective existence is still subject to its Creator.

God's objective existence is His uncreated eternal Self-Conscious Self-Existence. All other objects have created everlasting or temporal existence which is subject to God but given objective reality.

Interesting. I would like to see the full treatment if you can direct me anywhere on-line since the way I'd view phenomenon, it would have an underlying existence and Zodhiates confirms with "Therefore, phainomai is often synonymous with eimi, to be, and ginomai, to become."

I'll look around for more.

Okay--think I got it.

:thumb::wave::wave2::banana:

Okay--getting closer (I think) to what you mean by noumenon and objective existence. The Logos as noumenon remains in the Father's mind, so-to-speak (until you get into processions as you describe them)?

I think you're representing it, yes.

I don't see how a self-conscious subject in any form isn't a hypostasis.

It IS. Just not an individuated additional hypostasis. There is only one sentient volitional center of consciousness for God. The nous is a faculty of the physis of an ousia, though the functionality would be the hypostasis.

No multi-minded, multi-willed God.

The economic processions.

Exactly how, though. How did God as uncreated phenomenon inhabit created phenomenon?

Ad intra, ad extra...

Ad intra is an eisegetic conceptual "band-aid" in its application for uni-phenomenal multi-hypostaticism.

What I'm asking about is exactly how an uncreated God inhabited, occupied, and dwells is created phenomenon while still remaining transcendent to created phenomenon, totally uncontained and constrained.

How, specifically, did God create heaven as His everlasting abode to tent with us?

No void. The Father is thinking thought of Himself (the Son/Logos) and the Spirit proceeds as love (or will) internally (is one model).

Exerchomai is "from" some"where" "to" some"where". God created all "where". There is no "where" for "from" or "to" internally; and once exerchomai and ekporeuomai are "used" up for eisegetic internal application, there's no ad extra left for economic procession.

I understand that's your position, but it's not mine. I have a subject/center of action (and like you, the subject is self-conscious) in the Logos--a hypostasis.

Your/my logos is most definitely not an individuated hypostasis from "me" as another "me". The Son is the very eternal uncreated Logos of God, not another Logos. There are not mutliple self-consciousnesses for God.

Got it. So the Logos has no prosopon/presence until creation.

Sure it does. Phaino is to shine, to appear, to be conspicuous, to seem, to be thought. The Logos is toward the Rhema as God's singular hypostasis and all it underlies. This seeming is the eternal apparentness of the Son that shines forth when/as creation is instantiated into existence.

Internal eternal uncreated phaino, which was externalized with creation. THAT's ad intra, not exerchomai. The Son's eternal phaino was noumenal Logos.

Disagree, but I think I got the distinction between phenomenon and prosopon as you're using them.

Partly. Not yet multi-phenomeonally, though.

I think the least we can say about prosopon/presence is that it is certainly a phenomenon which may (or may not be according to your definition) seen.

Multi-phenomenality accounts for this. The Orthodox multi-hypostaticism cannot, as it's a compensation for not accounting for the created heaven.

They're there--and when they appear they are heavy and pregnant with meaning.

Yes, but always misapplied according to the eisegesis of multiple hypostases and uni-phenomenality.

But I would still like to see "phenomenon" and "noumenon" as used in Scripture, if at all. I'll do some browsing around.

:)

Okay--I can accept the use of "mind" in discussions with those who don't drag along any New Age junk. (I'll probably continue to use intellect (btw, that's how Aquinas translated nous in Latin--intellectus) so you'll forgive me I'm sure. :) )

I eschew Scholasticism, and Aquinas most of all. He internally damaged the faith more than anyone but maybe Augustine until later Thesophologians.

Potat-o, potaht-o, LOL! (Not at all but okay.) I'll think "aseity" since it's short and sweet and try to remember you add "perseconsciosity" (wow!), i.e., self-consciousness.

From-Self-Ity is nice shorthand if all facets are represented, which they seldom are.

We may have to agree to just disagree here. Logos is seriously elastic with a huge semantic range.

But highly influenced by Philo, don't forget.

And if we look at the historical environment John was writing in and how he may have understood it, we'd find the notion of Logos leans even further than either of us are going here toward a fairly concrete personal existence.

I would even highly emphasize this more. The Logos is the very hypostasis of God. It doesn't get more personal or existent than that. It's the distinction between accurately recognizing the Son as the express image OF God's (singular) hypostasis from phenomenon into phenomenon with a distinct prosopon for transcendent uncreation and creation; NOT another uni-phenomenal hypostasis.

The express image (charakter) OF God's hypostasis is the Logos re-presenting that singular hypostasis into created phenomenon with a distinct prosopon.

It's the royal signet ring of God, with His Logos stamping His hypostasis into the wax of creation as the Son. Same hypostasis.

Well thank you! But sure He did!

"He" sure didn't as a multi-hypostatic uni-phenomenal God with multiple eternal minds/wills.

How did God create? Specifically. How is the Holy Spirit a distinct individuated hypostasis?

Sure they do--google it.

None I "know" or "have met". Until you.

By being the Father's thought of Himself in hypostasis. The Father spoke through the Son. Economic processions.

Not tenable. Uni-phenomenal.

You have a potentiality in God becoming an actuality concurrent with creation.

No. God's innate noumenon is intrinsic to His phenomenon. Yours is a time-based construct and division of God that you can't recognize.

If God didn't create, the Son wouldn't have proceeded.

Incorrect. This is time-based perception. Once it exists, creation has "always" existed. For God, there is no "always". He's nowhen, yet "after" He creates, He's also everywhere "while" He's nowhen.

The Son eternally proceeded. All tenses are time.

Trinitarianism straight-up doesn't have that problem.

I'm a Trintarian. What I've illustrated doesn't have that problem. Multi-hypostaticism constrains God to time and projects it upon Him.

Not thinking in uni-phenomenal(ity?) at all. Each hypostasis has its own proper prosopon with it's own proper phenomenon.

That's not multi-phenomenality. And God's singular hypostasis has it's own proper transcendent prosopon (Father) as uncreated phenomenon AND it's own proper crestion-immanent eternal prosopon (Son), the latter "shared" with the Holy (set-apart) Spirit in created phenomenon.

The phenomenal Logos re-presents God's hypostasis as the Son within crestion that was noumenal until given phenomenon at the divine utterance. The re-presentation was the noumenal Logos as the Son.

Sabellians were attempting to present this aspect, but uni-phenomenally and it turned ugly in various ways. Arians just represented the procession of the Logos as a crestive act, which it was not.

Homoousios!!!! Homohypostatic!!!! Multi-phenomenal. No sequential or dynamic modes.

In your view, there is no hypostasis of the Son to unite with human nature and give it subsistence.

But of course there is. It's the processed hypostasis of God; the Logos as the Son.

The only hypostasis is the Father.

No. It would be constituent parts for God to be multiple hypostases. The express image OF that hypostasis is not another hypostasis. It's the coming of that hypostasis into created phenomenality to inhere God to His creation by the Holy Spirit.

So in your words tell me what, exactly, was incarnate and became man.

The express image OF God's hypostasis. The Son. Same hypostasis, different phenomeon. Distinct prosopon.

Just like you have a thought in your mind, it's within you and not external. You have internal operations.

My thoughts certainly don't have Self-consciousness and aren't an internal or external individuated hypostasis from me. And my spirit certainly isn't, either.

A self-conscious internal distinct Logos as an individuated hypostasis leads quickly and easily down the slippery slope of thoughts having thoughts, which is the platform for all Gnostic mythologies. Valentinius (and maybe others) was even multi-hypostatic (allegedly, since the writings are not extant).

The formulation is manifestly not post-creation.

I didn't say you did or would recognize it as such, but it is.

LOL--there is no need whatsoever to imagine 3 people.

Three sentient volitional self-conscious hypostases is nothing BUT that. The singular ousia is just a fudge-factor. It turns to Tritheism almost instantly.

A Subordinationist, Non-economic, non-Filioque formulaic might get closer. But no more so than some form of "Oneness" Modalism.

I would (and do) share your distaste for "social Trinitarian" views and analogies. I would bet I am just as disturbed at Rublev's Trinity (http://www.belygorod.ru/img2/Ikona/Used/017rublev troitsa.jpg) as you are.

But you're not at all disturbed by a multiple-sentienced, multi-hypostatic, uni-phenomenal God. Most aren't. I am. I was lost for 28 years because of it.

Think merely "center of action" for hypostasis.

Alas, I cannot; at least in multiples. God is one hypostasis.


Convo with you is edifying and disarming. Thank YOU!!:banana:
 
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Ask Mr. Religion

☞☞☞☞Presbyterian (PCA) &#9
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The Lord Jesus was in heaven as Man before He came down to earth and was born of Mary.

Read...heed...

http://www.desiringgod.org/articles/anhypostasis-what-kind-of-flesh-did-jesus-take

http://www.desiringgod.org/articles/enhypostasis-what-kind-of-flesh-did-the-word-become

Do you think the human nature of Jesus would have existed at all without God the Son?

What does your Pastor say about your views?

Third time asked and unanswered: "Was God the Son confined to earth and therefore not omnipresent during the time Jesus walked the earth?" Why are you avoiding the question? :AMR:

AMR
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
Came into existence?

So according to you the Lord Jesus originally had only one nature and then at some point he acquired another nature.

But that is impossible because of what is said here:

"Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever" (Heb.13:8).​

Why don't you try reconciling your idea with what is said there?

If you'd lay aside your stubborn ignorance, arrogance, and self-importance and listen to the depth of what Soros and AMR have said, you might actually learn something of truth instead of all this eternal man drivel and not understanding God's immutability.

Don't bother with me. Just listen to Soros. She explained what you're intentionally and pridefully missing.

Bye.
 

Soror1

New member
You are the one who brought up the book of Daniel and then you had nothing to say about my last answer to your points about the meaning of the term "the Son of Man" in that book. Why not?

Because I already know them.

You are not understanding (or acknowledging) that both "son of man" and "son of god" have more than one meaning. They are homonyms.

Different meanings in the son of man:

God is not man, that he should lie, or a son of man, that he should change his mind.​

how much less man, who is a maggot, and the son of man, who is a worm!”​

Put not your trust in princes, in a son of man, in whom there is no salvation.​

“I saw in the night visions, and behold, with the clouds of heaven there came one like a son of man, and he came to the Ancient of Days and was presented before him.​

Now surely you do not think that Jesus was referring to Himself as a mind-changer, worm, and in whom there is no salvation.

He is The Son of Man of Daniel.

Different meanings in son of god:

Adam, the son of God.​

the sons of God saw that the daughters of man were attractive. And they took as their wives any they chose.​

Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the Lord, and Satan also came among them.​

And we know that the Son of God has come and has given us understanding, so that we may know him who is true; and we are in him who is true, in his Son Jesus Christ. He is the true God and eternal life.​

Now surely you do not think that Adam as son of God is meant in the same sense as Jesus, son of God.

Jesus is The Son of God.
 
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