Earlier I said:
So you are saying that even though the Lord Jesus became human when born of Mary that His very nature did not change then. According to your idea He originally had just one nature and then when He took on another nature He was not changed at all!
To this you said:
When speaking of God's revelation I prefer not to revert to philosophy, especially since I have the true word of God right in front in me in the Bible.
I prefer Paul's method of dealing with the Scriptures:
"And Paul, as his manner was, went in unto them, and three sabbath days reasoned with them out of the scriptures" (Acts 17:2).
Note "
reasoned with them
out of the scriptures", not heaped upon them verses.
You have ignored a couple of pointed questions that were reasoned out of the Scriptures so let me ask one of them once again:
Did God intrinsically change when He created or creation came to be?
According to you the Lord Jesus put on an entirely different nature when He was born of Mary but yet He remained the same and no change came upon Him.
In order to believe that I would have to throw my reason to the wind. Evidently you are able to do that!
He
united with a different nature (humanity) and remained unchanged in His deity. If you can answer the question above, perhaps we can get at why that can be so.
All you prove is that you really have no reasonable answer to what is said here:
"Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever" (Heb.13:8).
Of course I do! It is you who is building a novel doctrine out of whole cloth (Jesus had flesh from eternity and not the Incarnation) since you are erroneously assuming that uniting with a human nature changes His divine nature.
You earlier said "Of course I give a lot of credit to what was taught in the Apostolic church" but you didn't answer my follow-up question which was "Okay, and who was that and when did it end (or where did it go)?"
The reason I asked is because I believe that the church who formulated the confession of Chalcedon (which explains this union)
was the Apostolic church. I'm trying to find out a point of common connection and/or departure because the last thing I want to do is re-hash conclusions the church has come to already by consensus by reasoning from the Scriptures.
Next, you try to prove that the Lord Jesus does change despite what is said at Hebrews 13:8:
No, once again you're pre-supposing that union with human nature
is a change. I gave you two verses you must harmonize with Hebrews 13:8. Here they are again:
By this you know the Spirit of God: every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God,
For many deceivers have gone out into the world, those who do not confess the coming of Jesus Christ in the flesh.
Now combine with Hebrews 13:8
Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever
and what conclusion must be drawn? That Jesus Christ can come in the flesh and
not change.
And here's my follow-up question which you also didn't answer:
"So what are you going to do? Because you can't accept how and why Jesus Christ can remain immutable in His deity, you're just going to assume He had flesh from eternity to gloss over it and there was no Incarnational event?"
What was the Incarnation all about, to you?
Paul compares bodies to being clothed upon with a garment (2 Cor.5:1-2). A man's body is just His outer garment.
"
not that we would be unclothed, but that we would be
further clothed, so that what is mortal may be swallowed up by life."
Note that Adam & Eve in paradise with God had bodies of flesh and bone.
"This at last is bone of my bones and flesh of my flesh"
which were further clothed after the fall.
God made the human body--flesh and bone--and called it "very good". Why would He want to scrap that?
You confuse a man's garment with the "inner man":
"That he would grant you, according to the riches of his glory, to be strengthened with might by his Spirit in the inner man" (Eph.3:16).
Here Paul speaks of the outward man which refers only to the physical body, and that is contrasted to the inward man:
"For which cause we faint not; but though our outward man perish, yet the inward man is renewed day by day" (2 Cor.4:16).
When the outward man perishes we remain a man and that man is the inner man, the true essence of humanity. This alone proves that "flesh" is not essential to humanity.
Our body is perish
ing. Jesus will transform it:
20 But our citizenship is in heaven, and from it we await a Savior, the Lord Jesus Christ, 21 who will transform our lowly body to be like his glorious body, by the power that enables him even to subject all things to himself.
Paul also makes the point that no Christian perishes:
17 And if Christ has not been raised, your faith is futile and you are still in your sins. 18 Then those also who have fallen asleep in Christ have perished.
Or perhaps you want to argue that those who have already died and have shed their flesh body and are now with the Lord in heaven are no longer men?
They haven't shed them, their bodies have been/will be transformed. Whatever position one takes on the Book of Revelation it is clear that there are human bodies in heaven both before and after the final judgment and a body isn't a human body without flesh. Jesus
redeemed human flesh.
The Apostle John knew that when the Lord returns at the rapture that the Christian would be made like Him (Phil.3:20-21). And John didn't think that when the Lord Jesus descends from heaven that the Lord will be in the earthly resurrected body which he had seen:
"Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is" (1 Jn.3:2).
If John thought that the Lord was going to descend from heaven in His resurrected body which they saw while he was on the earth and they would be made like that body, then John would not have said,
"it doth not yet appear what we shall be."
If John thought that the Lord was going to descend from heaven in His earthly, heavenly body, then he would have expected that His body will be made just like that resurrected body. But he knew that the Lord would descend in a different body.
This tells us that the Lord Jesus is not now in the flesh body of His resurrection.
I know of no (respectable) exegete or commentator who takes this to say anything about physical appearances given the context (which includes 1 John 2:29). It is instead about character.
Anyway, in conclusion to this portion of your post, the clobber verse--from one of God's faves, Job:
For I know that my Redeemer lives,
and at the last he will stand upon the earth.
26 And after my skin has been thus destroyed,
yet in my flesh I shall see God,
27 whom I shall see for myself,
and my eyes shall behold, and not another.
I used the Bible to explain your point. and instead of using the Bible to address what I said you refer to something which is not found in the Bible, proving that you cannot answer me by using the Scriptures.
According to you when the Lord Jesus used the term "Son of Man" the high priest understood Him to be referring to himself as God. You really need to learn to "reason out of the Scriptures" because at this point you are standing reason on its head.
One cannot understand the Scriptures in full if one ignores the historical context in which events took place. It is the Historical-grammatical method of exegesis and is the primary method used by conservative, Sola Scriptura Protestants.