Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
Sure there is.
So you think that the words of Paul when he speaks of "things which are not seen" are things which we can actually see with our eyes!
Christ resurrection was not invisible
No one said that it is invisible. However, I did not see it with my eyes. Did you?
Can't a man agree with one thing without knowing everything?
The first thing we have to agree with Him on is that we are sinners and need to repent.
OK, so all those who understand that they are sinners are brought into obedience and belief in the truth through the Holy Spirit?
I know people who admit that they are sinners and they reject the truth. In fact, someone who was very close to me admitted that he was a sinner but he died in a state of unbelief. How do you explain that?
What I think you're saying is that we have to be saved before we can be saved, is that correct?
No, that is not right. I will go step by step in explaining what I said. Let us look at the two verses again:
"Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ" (1 Pet.1:2).
"But we are bound to give thanks always to God for you, brethren beloved of the Lord, because God hath from the beginning chosen you to salvation through sanctification of the Spirit and belief of the truth" (2 Thess.2:13).
Notice that in the second quoted verse of these two the phrase "through sanctification of the Spirit" is tied to "salvation" so common sense dictates that the phrase has the same meaning in both verses which are speaking of being chosen or elected.
Can you understand that? Do you agree with that? If your answer is "no" then tell me exactly what I said that in error. Now to continue, I said:
In both of these verses the Greek word translated "through" means "of the instrument or means by or with which anything is accomplished...by means of, by (through)" (Thayer's Greek English Lexicon).
Do you agree with that? If not, why not? Next I said this:
Therefore, we can understand that being chosen or elected to salvation is through the instrumentality of the Spirit when He separates a person to God. That happens when a person is baptized into the Body of Christ by one Spirit:
"For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit" (1 Cor.12:13).
"For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit" (1 Cor.12:13).
Do you agree with that? If not, why not? I finished by saying this:
Since being saved and being baptized into the Body of Christ is in regard to "individual" salvation the we can know that when this verse speaks of election the reference is to "individual" salvation:
"Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ" (1 Pet.1:2).
So a person is elected or chosen to "individual" salvation according to the "foreknowledge" of God.
"Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ" (1 Pet.1:2).
So a person is elected or chosen to "individual" salvation according to the "foreknowledge" of God.
Do you agree with this? if not, why not?
Thanks!