Your problem is that you ignore one of the meanings which is given there, that the Greek word translated spiritual "always connotes the ideas of invisibility and of power" (Vine's Expository Dictionary of new Testament Words).
Your ideas directly contradict that. What are your credentials in understanding the things in regard to the Greek language?
I have no credentials in the Greek language. But I do feel like I'm well versed in the english language--I've spoken and read it most of 50 years--in which the Vine's resource is written. And if you'll notice, the note about "always connotes the ideas of invisibility and of power" is NOT one of the definitions, but a commentary on the definitions. And I didn't ignore that commentary, but went into a fair amount of detail about what "invisibility" means when applied to intangible things, as well as what invisibility might mean when applied to physical things. Until you've done that, you're reading Vine's commentary with a rather wooden and literal sense that may not apply to the scriptures that you are reading in a wooden and literal sense that also may not apply that way. Something has to give--either there's a physical existence in the eternal state that defines the man, or Job is wrong. Which do you choose?
You confuse the body with the man. Of course it is the "inner man" (who is invisible) who is a spiritual man. For some reason the idea that the body which we are now in are described as being clothed upon escapes you. Perhaps you are willing to argue that we can see with our eyes the inner man?
Why would I pursue an argumentation taken from one of your premises? I think you are saying Job was wrong. You are taking Job's assertion that he will see with his eyes and stand in his flesh AFTER his flesh and his eyes have been eaten by worms, and saying that it applies to the "inner man"? Job did not hope in a spiritual existence, but a "fleshy" one, though I'd hazard to guess that he wasn't speaking of a corruptible flesh (which is one, but not the only use of the word "flesh"), but a
changed flesh.
Of course He will "appear" to the believers when they are changed into a spiritual body just like His spiritual body. Besides that, if the Lord Jesus will appear in the same body in which they saw Him after He was raised from the dead then they would know EXACTLY what they will be. But what is said here proves that is not true:
"Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is" (1 Jn.3:2).
Again, if the Lord Jesus is now in a flesh and blood body like the one which the Apostles saw after He was raised from the dead then they would no EXACTLY what He will be like and what they will be like.
This is a very good point! Could Jesus' body have experienced a change afterward, like, perhaps, emitting light like at the transfiguration? That's one possibility of what might be changed in us. But it doesn't negate Jesus' resurrection into a physical body that resembled His previous body so much that He retained the scars from His crucifixion. And to cast off that body, which is what you were suggesting He did when He ascended, is as equivalent to a second death as anything I could come up with.
Who says that He has no body? I have always said that when the living saints will meet the Lord Jesus in the air then they will take on a body just like His glorious body. Your mind is so closed on this subject that you cannot even understand the things which those who disagree with you say.
They shall be "changed", but what does that mean? It might mean "take on a body", or it might mean they will experience changes to their bodies. "Taking on a body" is ok with me, as long as there is some correlation with their old body. Without that, you can't have a "resurrection". "Spiritual body" is an oxymoron. We need to figure out what Paul meant by it, and we can't do it by eliminating the thing Job was placing his hope on.
And of course those in heaven will be able to see Him because by that time they will also have spiritual bodies like the Lord Jesus' spiritual body. In fact they will be able to see God who is spirit (Rev.22:3-4).
Do you think that we can see God with the eyes which are a part of our natural bodies?
Another good question! I'll go to the Old Testament for this. There were a number of cases where people saw God, often accompanied by the fear that they would die because they saw God. Moses talked with God "face to face", and He asked God to show him his glory, though God wouldn't except the fading of it (His "backside"):
And he said, I beseech thee, shew me thy glory. [Exo 33:18 KJV]
And he said, Thou canst not see my face: for there shall no man see me, and live. [Exo 33:20 KJV]
And I will take away mine hand, and thou shalt see my back parts: but my face shall not be seen. [Exo 33:23 KJV]
Moses was physically affected by God's glory, and wore a veil because his face was shining or ceasing to shine, perhaps. This may indicate that God was irradiating Moses with His presence.
Jacob wrestled with God, so he must have seen Him. But I also see where John says we can't see God [No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him. (John 1:18)]. This is an oxymoronic concept, that Jacob could wrestle with someone that couldn't be seen. We have to deal with the seeming contradiction, and the way we do it usually is that we say that there are appearances of God that are not "actually" God. Sometimes they are referred to as the Angel of the Lord. Jesus was different from these, as He was born to a human mother.
And Paul goes a step further to say: Who alone is immortal and who lives in unapproachable light, whom no one has seen or can see. To him be honor and might forever (1 Timothy 6:16). Even in his description of God as "invisible", Paul uses a visual clue--light--to explain it. Is God, perhaps, invisible because He is surrounded by glory in the form of light? Light that we can
see? Or maybe that has an effect on our physical bodies? One possibility is that God's light is full spectrum--meaning it comprises both the healthy light that we see and feel (like infrared) as well as that which we can't see nor feel, but can cause damage to our physical bodies (like x-rays and gamma rays). Thus "seeing God" may cause us to die, at least until our bodies are changed to be incorruptible.
As I said before, there are several ways to be invisible. I'm saying I don't know which one Paul is thinking of. And it doesn't seem too much of a stretch to say that our eyes that currently cannot stand to see God's full glory could be changed in the resurrection to be able to see it.
When Paul uses the pronoun [I think you mean "adjective"] "spiritual" to describe our future bodies He is describing the very essence of that body. And again, the Greek word translated 'spiritual' "always connotes the ideas of invisibility and of power."
[/quote]I disagree that "invisibility" is the "essence" Paul is striving to convey, despite your assertion. The context clearly is referring to something that is LASTING and PERFECTED rather than fleeting and weak. I've given reasons why the "invisibility" part of the connotation doesn't always apply, which boil down to the fact that most of the definitions of "spiritual" are inherently invisible because they are intangible. Jesus, offering to His disciples to touch and feel His body, showed that it was not intangible. Jesus would have to die again to get rid of that body.
We can also see that here Paul uses another adjective to describe the Lord Jesus as he is now in heaven and "invisible":
"Now unto the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the only wise God, be honour and glory for ever and ever" (1 Tim.1:17).
The pronoun
[adjective?] is describing the very essence of the Lord Jesus, just like when the following pronoun
[adjective?] is used to describe God:
"In whom we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins: Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature" (Col.1:14-15).
How does an invisible person have an "image"? The very word conveys the idea of sight!
As with any oxymoron, or seeming contradiction, we are left with the task of figuring out what it means without losing either of the supposed contradictory parts. If God is "light" (which expressly denotes something that our eyes can see), but God is "invisible" (which expressly denotes something our eyes cannot see), how can He be both? I think we are both leaning the same way--that in our glorified bodies, we will have the capability to see Him--but disagreeing about why we don't see Him now.