Matthew spoke of the last days. Why not use his example?
In Matthew 24 Jesus tells what happens in "those days".
(Matt 24:29) Immediately after the distress of those days...
"Those days" that Jesus talks about are the days of 66Ad - 70Ad
Matthew spoke of the last days. Why not use his example?
In Matthew 24 Jesus tells what happens in "those days".
(Matt 24:29) Immediately after the distress of those days...
"Those days" that Jesus talks about are the days of 66Ad - 70Ad
And what really happened in 70 AD----THE TEMPLE DESTROYED, 70 A.D.
(Matt 24:30) “Then will appear the sign of the Son of Man in heaven.
(Matt 24:30) “Then will appear the sign of the Son of Man in heaven.
That's at the end of the age not 70 AD.
Then what?
70AD was the "end of the age"
The OC along with all of its shadows was completely done away with, and the NC was in place.
The following was written a few years before 70AD
(Heb 8:13) By calling this covenant “new,” he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and outdated will soon disappear.
As we see, the NC was in place but the OC hadn't completely been done away with.
Then in 70AD the OC disappeared for good, and the NC was fully in place.
I believe the writer of Hebrews is talking about Jeremiah's day.(Heb 8:13) By calling this covenant “new,” he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and outdated will soon disappear.
Your saying this already happened?
Matthew 24:36
But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.
When I asked, "after that, what", I meant the next verse:
Mat 24:31 And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.
I take it that you're saying this already happened, too?
I believe the writer of Hebrews is talking about Jeremiah's day.
:chuckle: So be it for you my Preterist friend
The writer of Hebrews is quoting Jeremiah to show that a new covenant was promised, which meant the old covenant...No, the writer of Hebrews is talking about the old covenant and the new covenant.
Jeremiah prophesied that a new covenant would be made, and it was made by Christ in the first century.
The writer of Hebrews quotes Jeremiah to show that the new covenant was made.
The OC along with all of its shadows was completely done away with, and the NC was in place.
The following was written a few years before 70AD
(Heb 8:13) By calling this covenant “new,” he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and outdated will soon disappear.
As we see, the NC was in place but the OC hadn't completely been done away with.
Then in 70AD the OC disappeared for good, and the NC was fully in place.
(Matt 24:34) Truly I tell you, this generation will certainly not pass away until all these things have happened.
Do you know anyone still alive today that was alive in 30Ad?
The writer of Hebrews is quoting Jeremiah to show that a new covenant was promised, which meant the old covenant...
This was in Jeremiah's day, and the writer of Hebrews makes his point about it.