Of course.Singular, and yet plural?
John 14:24 He that loveth me not keepeth not my sayings (logos plural): and the word (logos singular) which ye hear is not mine, but the Father's which sent me.
He's not.A7 said:Since Jesus is called The Word..
You can claim anything .... if you don't care about truth.A7 said:... then you just admitted that the OT prophets spoke with Jesus!
Your pretense is just wishful thinking.
As a promise. That's why Abraham saw Christ's future "day".A7 said:How else could Jesus have existed in the OT?
Nope, I searched on the phrase "the word of God". And I sense you are a little embarrassed that I so easily proved that "the word of God" is ALWAYS talking about something spoken, or written.A7 said:All you did with your NT quotes(absolutely ZERO OT quotes, surprise!) is search the English term,'Word', and then run with it.
Yes, even And having been clothed in a garment which had been dipped in blood. And His name is called The Word of God. Rev 19.13
This is a NAME Jesus WILL HAVE WHEN HE CONQUERS THE PLANET....
Specifically because he so PERFECTLY fulfilled his God's words.
Are you just now figuring out that rhema and logos are interchangeable???A7 said:Little do you know (or care, apparently) that more than one Greek term is rendered 'Word' in your passages.
John 12:48 He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words (reemata - plural), hath one that judgeth him: the word (logos singular) that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day.
You can claim anything .... if you don't care about truth.A7 said:Regardless, you just proved my point.
Your pretense is just wishful thinking.
Nope.A7 said:According to you, God's WORDS are clothed in a garment, dipped in blood, and have a personal pronoun 'His' as a name!
According to me a man, who is given the NAME "the word of God", is clothed in a bloody garment.
The reason Jesus is called that name is, he fulfills his God's word perfectly.