Have you heard of Valentinus?
No, but Paul could have been prophesying about Jesus ben Ananias.Would you say that what you just posted has any relevance to what Paul wrote, in 2 Corinthians 11:4 KJV?
Would you say that Paul was referring to Jesus Ernesto Gonzales Jr by his phrase "another Jesus"?
Jesus ben Ananias ("the son of Ananias") [rendered as the "son of Ananus" in the Whiston translation] was a plebeian farmer, who, four years before the First Jewish-Roman War began in 66 AD, went around Jerusalem prophesying the city's destruction. The Jewish leaders of Jerusalem turned him over to the Romans, who tortured him. The procurator Albinus took him to be a madman and released him. He continued his prophecy for more than seven years until he was killed by a stone from a catapult during the Roman siege of Jerusalem during the war. |
Paul is well known for his creative figures of speech and hyperbole.Or, instead, would you say that Paul's expression, "preacheth another Jesus, whom we have not preached", was simply a figure of speech, by which he meant something along the lines of "preach things about Jesus contrary to what we have preached about Jesus"?
:chuckle:All seriousness aside, having read the little wikipedia bio of the second Jesus you listed, it appears that Paul wouldn't likely have approved of him as a valid choice to fill the office of a bishop, according to 1 Timothy 3:3 KJV:
Are you claiming that Moses abolished God's commandments and substituted his own commandments in their place?Moses destroyed a version of the 10 Commandments and changed them to a second version.
Are you claiming that Moses abolished God's commandments and substituted his own commandments in their place?
Are you claiming that Moses abolished God's commandments and substituted his own commandments in their place?
LOL .... that's called "begging the question".You couldn't have proven that because God has never changed any of His commandments.
What makes you think that there is more than one version?Which version are you talking about?
Not quite, try again.The Bible mentions more than one version.
Yes, and he replaced the ones that were broken with another set that contained the same words.Moses broke the first set of commandments.
Exodus 34:28 28 And he was there with the Lord forty days and forty nights; he did neither eat bread, nor drink water. And he wrote upon the tables the words of the covenant, the ten commandments. |
The tablets are supposedly kept in a church in Aksum, Ethiopia.It would be insteresting to be able to see what that version orinially said, wouldn’t it?
1. Do not worship any other god, for the LORD, whose name is Jealous, is a jealous God.
2. Do not make any idols.
3. Celebrate the Festival of Unleavened Bread. For seven days eat bread made without yeast, as I commanded you. Do this at the appointed time in the month of Aviv, for in that month you came out of Egypt.
4. The first offspring of every womb belongs to me, including all the firstborn males of your livestock, whether from herd or flock.
5. Redeem the firstborn donkey with a lamb, but if you do not redeem it, break its neck. Redeem all your firstborn sons. No one is to appear before me empty-handed.
6. Six days you shall labor, but on the seventh day you shall rest; even during the plowing season and harvest, you must rest.
7. Celebrate the Festival of Weeks with the firstfruits of the wheat harvest, and the Festival of Ingathering at the turn of the year.
8. Three times a year all your men are to appear before the Sovereign LORD, the God of Israel.
9. Do not offer the blood of a sacrifice to me along with anything containing yeast and do not let any of the sacrifices from the Passover Festival remain until morning.
10. Thou shalt not cook a young kid in its mother's milk.
Those are not the ten commandments.I posted another version of the 10 Commandments from the Bible earlier.
What do you think of it?
Sorry, no.No.
The incapacity to grasp one being in three person's does not change Christianity as monotheistic. It just means some people are incapable of grasping the reality of one being in three person's.
I haven't seen a "herbs only" commandment and an "anything that moves and lives" commandment.Jehovah/YHVH God changed the "herbs only" commandment He had given before the flood, to the "anything that moves and lives" commandment of Gen 9. About 850 years Later Jehovah/YHVH God changed the post-flood commandment to now require Israel to avoid certain meats.
Sorry, no.
1) Eventually every trinitarian/oneness debater MUST admit the theory defies comprehension. If you claim to "grasp" it, you're dishonest.
2) The tenets unique to the trinity, or oneness, doctrine are EASY to grasp. They are merely illogical, and contradict the real world ..... but most importantly, they contradict the simple, clear and direct statements of Scripture.
Those are not the ten commandments.
Eventually every one being, one person debater MUST admit they're no different than a Muslim and ultimately have no fellowship with the Creator. But, most importantly they are incapable of grasping the clear truth of Scripture because they are dead in their trespasses and sins. Spiritually dead persons have no faith and therefore fail to believe. Arguing with a dead person becomes a fruitless waste of time because only God can make them alive. So I dust my sandals on them and leave them to their deadness.
Of course you have, you just don't WANT to "see" it.I haven't seen a "herbs only" commandment and an "anything that moves and lives" commandment.
Hmmmm .... that doesn't match ANY of the debates I've seen in the last 65 years.Eventually every one being, one person debater MUST admit they're no different than a Muslim and ultimately have no fellowship with the Creator.
Incorrect. Many that WERE dead in their trespasses and sins have grasped the clear truth of Scripture, WHILE they were still "dead in their sins"..... and then made the choice to BELIEVE what they grasped, and OBEY what they believed.M said:But, most importantly they are incapable of grasping the clear truth of Scripture because they are dead in their trespasses and sins.
Greetings again Apple7,You seem to be confused here. Philippians 2:10-11 says that when we bow the knee to Jesus, then this gives glory to God the Father. Also you have not responded to my explanation of Philippians 2 in Post 451 on page 31 and Post 477 on page 32 which you have bypassed in your usual method. It reminds me of your run around when you refused to acknowledge that Mary is the mother of Jesus. If you answer these two Posts with a substantial answer then I will continue, as I am not interested in playing your game and waste time.
Kind regards
Trevor
Are you denying what Apple7 stated? Are you denying that Jesus--the Son of God--IS the glory of God the Father? If the glory of God the Father is NOT the Son, then whom, or what, would you say IS the glory of God the Father?
Where, in Philippians 2:9-11 KJV, does Paul say that something "gives glory to God the Father"? Instead, what we read there is that something is "to the glory of God the Father".
Also, in v. 10, we see that God highly exalts Jesus, and gives Jesus a name above every name. Is Paul telling us that God the Father is giving glory to God the Father? Is Paul telling us that God the Father is glorifying Himself?
The ONLY reason I have continued to use Jehovah, rather than Yahweh, or some other variant, is the ASV uses Jehovah, which is VERY familiar to everyone ..... yes, I do still get the occasional whining about the letter "J", and that kind of trivia .... but, as I mentioned, I am sure NO ONE knows how YHVH was pronounced 3,500 years ago, when Jehovah introduced it to Moses, and Israel.
no record? so maybe they WERE allowed to worship other gods, erect idols, kill randomly, steal anything, commit adultery, covet etc?More accurately, we have no RECORD of any other laws.
oh phew...was worried He was clueless on what He expected or what would NOT survive in a life WITH HIM...a rebellious heart disobedient to Him HIS WAYSThere certainly WERE others, since there were certainly expectations regarding sacrifices, and there were"clean and unclean" animals for those sacrifices.
feel free to try...the default remains...amendments to the original do NOT abrogate the original...I mean He instructed them to kill, steal, to even make images...Hosea to marry a whore...so do these replace the original set? Are we now able to?There is sufficient record of the first commandments to prove beyond doubt, Jehovah/YHVH God has changed the commandments at HIS choice.
right!... the covenant contract was moving them from egypt to the promise land...their FATHERS NEEDED NO SUCH MOVE thus NO SUCH CONTRACT...the terms however well...the FATHERS DID OBEYED yes?...Not a "reminder", a NEW covenant;
Deut 5:1-3 And Moses called unto all Israel, and said unto them, Hear, O Israel, the statutes and the ordinances which I speak in your ears this day, that ye may learn them, and observe to do them. 2 Jehovah our God made a covenant with us in Horeb. 3 Jehovah made not this covenant with our fathers, but with us, even us, who are all of us here alive this day.
ASV
well you missed it twice previous...Absolutely.
and why not pray tell...it was after all jewish FALSE WITNESS that claim Yahushua had changed the customs Moses delivered...Act 6:13-14 so they were NOT changed thus still binding...Sorry, the fact that James acknowledged the Scriptures were still being read in the Synagogues is NOT a New Testament commandment like "meat offered to idols" ....
observation of what James expected and assumed would continue to occur...believing gentiles crowding every Sabbath...it's merely an observation.
the gentiles requested Paul teach again the next SABBATH not the next day or whenever...and the next Sabbath almost the entire city showed up...We know Paul spoke in the Synagogues, AND in the market place;
Acts 17:17 Therefore disputed he in the synagogue with the Jews, and with the devout persons, and in the market daily with them that met with him. KJV
absolutely NOT...no Sabbath there at all...Sabbath was not a doubtful thing to jews...the chapter starts with disputations over doub disputable matters...Sabbath is NOT disputable...and NOWHERE in Romans 14This is in PERFECT harmony with the liberty explained here;
Rom 14:5-6 One man esteemeth one day above another: another esteemeth every day alike. Let every man be fully persuaded in his own mind.
6 He that regardeth the day, regardeth it unto the Lord; and he that regardeth not the day, to the Lord he doth not regard it. He that eateth, eateth to the Lord, for he giveth God thanks; and he that eateth not, to the Lord he eateth not, and giveth God thanks. KJV
Nope.
Heb 3:17-19 And with whom was He angry for forty years? Was it not with those who sinned, whose bodies fell in the wilderness? 18 And to whom did He swear that they would not enter His rest, but to those who were disobedient? 19 So we see that they were not able to enter because of unbelief.
The "rest" in Heb 3 & 4 is the Kingdom of God. Israel was keeping the 7th day Sabbath ALL during the 40 years, so we know it's not the sabbath DAY. It is God's rest.
Instead of trying to follow Apple7’s confused logic and reasoning which you seem to be defending, I will initially state my perspective. Firstly there is One God the Father, and 2000 years ago God became the father of Jesus and Mary was his mother, and the child born was thus the Son of God Luke 1:34-35, and also a son of man or a descendant of Adam through Mary. When Jesus was nearing his ministry, he had grown in wisdom and the Divine character, so that when Jesus was revealed to Israel, John says that they beheld his glory, and that glory was derived from the fact that he was the only begotten (conceived) of the Father Matthew 1:20-21, and this glory could be summarised as that he was full of grace and truth John 1:14.Are you denying what Apple7 stated? Are you denying that Jesus--the Son of God--IS the glory of God the Father? If the glory of God the Father is NOT the Son, then whom, or what, would you say IS the glory of God the Father?
Where, in Philippians 2:9-11 KJV, does Paul say that something "gives glory to God the Father"? Instead, what we read there is that something is "to the glory of God the Father".
Also, in v. 10, we see that God highly exalts Jesus, and gives Jesus a name above every name. Is Paul telling us that God the Father is giving glory to God the Father? Is Paul telling us that God the Father is glorifying Himself?
God the Father’s glory is underived. Jesus’ glory has been derived from God, and now he fully reveals this glory. My overall perspective of Philippians 2 is in Post 451 on page 31 and Post 477 on page 32 and Apple7 has bypassed this.
Kind regards
Trevor