Is the Law of Moses good or bad?

JudgeRightly

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Is the Law of Moses good or bad?

You cannot judge anyone as a wolf just because one do not meet your standard. Jesus is the Standard for His followers.

Also, you missed the point.

Jesus said we CAN determine who His followers are, which means it's not "only Jesus' business whether one is a Christian or not."
 

JudgeRightly

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[JESUS]“Beware of false prophets, who come to you in sheep’s clothing, but inwardly they are ravenous wolves.You will know them by their fruits. Do men gather grapes from thornbushes or figs from thistles?Even so, every good tree bears good fruit, but a bad tree bears bad fruit.A good tree cannot bear bad fruit, nor can a bad tree bear good fruit.Every tree that does not bear good fruit is cut down and thrown into the fire.Therefore by their fruits you will know them.[/JESUS] - Matthew 7:15-20 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew7:15-20&version=NKJV
You cannot judge anyone as a wolf just because one do not meet your standard. Jesus is the Standard for His followers.
don't you think it is Jesus' business whether one is a Christian or not?
Jesus COMMANDED his followers to be wary of wolves. That includes properly identifying the wolves.
 

Sherman

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If someone posts a lie, it's not really a concept.
What if someone just keeps repeatedly posting lies?

Refute the post. Don't call the member a liar. Nuff said on that. Now if they are posting misinformation about a TOL member, report it and we will deal with it.
 

Jacob

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Yes. I am familiar with it. What would you like to say about it?

What was different about the way a Hebrew Slave or a Bond Slave was in the Bible in the Torah with the nation of Israel as compared with the surrounding nations?
 

Guyver

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What was different about the way a Hebrew Slave or a Bond Slave was in the Bible in the Torah with the nation of Israel as compared with the surrounding nations?

The Law of Moses makes a distinction between Hebrew and non-Hebrew slaves. A Hebrew had a higher social status as a slave than a non-Hebrew. You could not treat Hebrew slaves brutally and they had to be released on the seventh year. Moses makes this distinction by calling them "brethren."

So, it was considered improper to own your brother as property, but you could own children of foreigners as property.

Leviticus 25

"Moreover you may buy the children of the strangers who dwell among you, and their families who are with you, which they beget in your land; and they shall become your property. 46 And you may take them as an inheritance for your children after you, to inherit them as a possession; they shall be your permanent slaves. But regarding your brethren, the children of Israel, you shall not rule over one another with rigor."

So, this demonstrates that a slave was property, like any other property and could be passed down through inheritance.

You can read more about it here.

How does this compare to the other nations surrounding Israel and their treatment of slaves? I don't know - you'd have to research it for yourself. Regarding Roman slave laws, you can read a little about it here.
 

jamesdyson

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MOSES LEADS PASSOVER
Exo 12:21 KJV) Then Moses called for all the elders of Israel, and said unto them, Draw out and take you a lamb according to your families, and kill the passover.
(Exo 12:26 KJV) And it shall come to pass, when your children shall say unto you, What mean ye by this service?
(Exo 12:27 KJV) That ye shall say, It is the sacrifice of the LORD'S passover, who passed over the houses of the children of Israel in Egypt, when he smote the Egyptians, and delivered our houses. And the people bowed the head and worshipped.
(Exo 12:28 KJV) And the children of Israel went away, and did as the LORD had commanded Moses and Aaron, so did they.
(Exo 12:29) And it came to pass, that at midnight the Lord smote all the firstborn in the land of Egypt, from the firstborn of Pharaoh that sat on his throne unto the firstborn of the captive that {was} in the dungeon; and all the firstborn of cattle.
(Exo 12:30 KJV) And Pharaoh rose up in the night, he, and all his servants, and all the Egyptians; and there was a great cry in Egypt; for there was not a house where there was not one dead.

The Death of the Midianite Women
Numbers 31
14 But Moses was furious with the officers of the army, the commanders over thousands and commanders over hundreds, who had come from service in the war.
15 Moses said to them, “Have you allowed all the women to live?”
16 Look, these people through the counsel of Balaam caused the Israelites to act treacherously against the LORD in the matter of Peor – which resulted in the plague among the community of the LORD!
17 Now therefore kill every boy, and kill every woman who has been intimate with a man in bed.
18 But all the young women who have not experienced a man’s bed will be yours.

Is this the Moses you admire-?

Just asking
No animosity intended or implied
 

jamesdyson

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The topic of this thread is not the character of Moses.
It is about the law that God gave to Israel through Moses.

I think it is relevant to note that Moses did not follow a law he claims to have created.
The question then comes to mind, did Moses create this law before or after he committed to many murders himself-?
 
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