Eagles Wings
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I am a guy. I am married to a girl. I have a seven month old daughter.
How wonderful!
I am a guy. I am married to a girl. I have a seven month old daughter.
I'm with Bobby and CindyYou should have stayed lost on this one. Taking bits and pieces is not really cool.
Can you show me where the text says that it WAS the "spirit of Samuel?" I think you're reading that into the text. It says that Saul perceived it was Samuel. Because if the passage literally confirmed that this was indeed the actual Samuel, and not a familiar spirit, then this discussion wouldn't be necessary, would it?
1 Samuel 28:7 KJV
(7) Then said Saul unto his servants, Seek me a woman that hath a familiar spirit, that I may go to her, and enquire of her. And his servants said to him, Behold, there is a woman that hath a familiar spirit at Endor.
:up:Scripture says nothing about Samuel being a "familiar spirit", or a pretend spirit, or a fake Samuel, or a figment of Saul's imagination. The woman, herself, was surprised at what she saw.
Scripture says plainly, "the woman saw Samuel".
1 Sam. 28:12 And when the woman saw Samuel, she cried with a loud voice: and the woman spake to Saul, saying, Why hast thou deceived me? for thou art Saul.
Scripture clearly says, "And SAMUEL said to Saul.."
1 Samuel 28:15 And Samuel said to Saul, Why hast thou disquieted me, to bring me up?
Scripture says nothing about Samuel being a "familiar spirit", or a pretend spirit, or a fake Samuel, or a figment of Saul's imagination. The woman, herself, was surprised at what she saw.
Scripture says plainly, "the woman saw Samuel".1 Sam. 28:12 And when the woman saw Samuel, she cried with a loud voice: and the woman spake to Saul, saying, Why hast thou deceived me? for thou art Saul.
Scripture clearly says, "And SAMUEL said to Saul.."1 Samuel 28:15 And Samuel said to Saul, Why hast thou disquieted me, to bring me up?
The scripture does say that the woman was one who had a familiar spirit, and we are elsewhere told that the spirits can impersonate things they are not, even making themselves as an angel of light. When the disciples of Jesus thought they saw a spirit, they never once thought that "maybe it is a friendly spirit." (Mark 14:26, Luke 24:37, 1 John 4:1, 2 Corinthians 11:14). When one goes to a woman who summons spirits by means of a familiar spirit, it is a reasonable expectation that what she summons is what she is known to summon.
If I understand the thrust of your point, however, it is that the text refers to the thing as "Samuel." But, as already mentioned earlier, this by itself proves nothing, as the Hebrew scripture especially uses short forms in place of more lengthy appellations. for example, who did Elhanan slay in battle? Did he really slay Goliath?
2 Samuel 21:19 RV
(19) And there was again war with the Philistines at Gob; and Elhanan the son of Jaare–oregim the Beth–lehemite slew Goliath the Gittite, the staff of whose spear was like a weaver’s beam.
The King James adds the brother of to the passage in italics, because the author of 2 Samuel simply used the word "Goliath." The addition of the brother of is supported by context: first, we already know that David killed Goliath, and second, 1 Chronicles 20:5 uses the extra words "the brother of" in a parallel account supporting that this the correct translation.
Likewise, same book, 1 Samuel 28, it is easier for the writer to say "Samuel" than "the apparition that called itself Samuel" and perfectly in keeping with the meaning of the way scripture is writ. Given the context of the passage, it seems to me that without a positive affirmation of "thus saith the Lord" it would be irresponsible to assume that the specter was anything but an impostor.
I am not assuming that the ghost was the real Samuel. If you can show me where the text makes that clarification for us, please do so. Otherwise, the context of the passage is a medium that deals with devils, who does not have the power to raise the dead or summon the saints to her bidding, and a God who has already refused to entertain Saul's request for council through all other means.
I'll remind you that I am not the only person who understands the passage in this sense. Luther, Calvin, King James I, etc... so if we are talking about this then let's consider the merits and what we can find that adds support. Or in other words, let's make an attempt at objectivity. Way 2 Go's time-tested method of ad hominem mockery remains unpersuasive.
The scripture does say that the woman was one who had a familiar spirit, and we are elsewhere told that the spirits can impersonate things they are not, even making themselves as an angel of light. When the disciples of Jesus thought they saw a spirit, they never once thought that "maybe it is a friendly spirit." (Mark 14:26, Luke 24:37, 1 John 4:1, 2 Corinthians 11:14). When one goes to a woman who summons spirits by means of a familiar spirit, it is a reasonable expectation that what she summons is what she is known to summon.
If I understand the thrust of your point, however, it is that the text refers to the thing as "Samuel." But, as already mentioned earlier, this by itself proves nothing, as the Hebrew scripture especially uses short forms in place of more lengthy appellations. for example, who did Elhanan slay in battle? Did he really slay Goliath?
2 Samuel 21:19 RV
(19) And there was again war with the Philistines at Gob; and Elhanan the son of Jaare–oregim the Beth–lehemite slew Goliath the Gittite, the staff of whose spear was like a weaver’s beam.
The King James adds the brother of to the passage in italics,
Likewise, same book, 1 Samuel 28, it is easier for the writer to say "Samuel" than "the apparition that called itself Samuel" and perfectly in keeping with the meaning of the way scripture is writ. Given the context of the passage, it seems to me that without a positive affirmation of "thus saith the Lord" it would be irresponsible to assume that the specter was anything but an impostor.
I am not assuming that the ghost was the real Samuel. If you can show me where the text makes that clarification for us, please do so. Otherwise, the context of the passage is a medium that deals with devils, who does not have the power to raise the dead or summon the saints to her bidding, and a God who has already refused to entertain Saul's request for council through all other means.
I'll remind you that I am not the only person who understands the passage in this sense. Luther, Calvin, King James I, etc... so if we are talking about this then let's consider the merits and what we can find that adds support. Or in other words, let's make an attempt at objectivity. Way 2 Go's time-tested method of ad hominem mockery remains unpersuasive.
The doctrine of eternal conscious torment is insidious, blasphemous, sadistic and 100% pagan. It is not taught in the Bible, and anyone who wants to know the truth about "hell" can find out very quickly.
https://www.jw.org/en/search/?q=Hell
The question is what the scripture actually says. It says clearly that it was Samuel and that Samuel spoke.
Samuel was not a "thing". He was a prophet of God.
Most translations have it right.
No, if it had been a "specter", Scripture would not have say it was Samuel, nor would the woman have been so surprised....nor would a "specter" have spoken for God and repeated what Samuel had already told Saul.
You can have a whole crowd on your side, and that won't change what is clearly written.
You refuse to read it as it's written because you think we die when we put off this tent in which we dwell. I think the Bible clearly says that's not the case.
You can have a whole crowd on your side, and that won't change what is clearly written.
You refuse to read it as it's written because you think we die when we put off this tent in which we dwell. I think the Bible clearly says that's not the case.
You refuse to read it as it's written because you think we die when we put off this tent in which we dwell. I think the Bible clearly says that's not the case.
You are neglecting to answer the actual points. Is this on accidental, or by design?
1) You deflected the point that the scripture, even the same author of the books of Samuel, does use less words, and that "the thing calling itself Samuel" would also be called by the same word "Samuel." And to counter the "Samuel was not a thing" argument, yes, Samuel was a thing. Regardless of whether it was a devil or man, even the Christ-child was a "thing" (Luke 1:35) so could you put aside any pretended indignation and address the actual point?
2) Regardless of whether English translations add "the brother of" in 2 Samuel 21:19, you again avoided addressing the point. The literal Hebrew text itself says that Goliath was slain, which counters your argument that the lack of "He that spoke as" in front of "Samuel" means that it must therefore be the one and only true Samuel.
What is missing is any sanction from God or scripture to show that this apparition was legitimate. The context shows that we should have no expectation of legitimacy, Saul was abandoned by God and went to a witch that had a familiar spirit. If you are interested in any sort of logical discussion, show me reason(s) why this Samuel should be accepted as true and legitimate.
Can you abstain from red herrings, and address the issues raised?
An argument as to the nature of the state of the dead is irrelevant in this case, it is not being used as a point of persuasion (and people on both sides of that question still agree that the apparition was not the legitimate Samuel.
Here, I will summarize again for you:
1) The use of the word "Samuel" does not testify as to whether this was the real legitimate Samuel. It only means that the thing called itself Samuel, and it is consistent with the style of biblical transcription to use less words.
2) Context of the passage includes that Saul was rejected by God, had a history of being plagued by evil spirits, and when God would not speak to Saul by oracle or prophet or any other means, that being summoned by a medium that summons devils is hardly the type of situation which would invoke a response from the True God or his prophets. Context demands that we assume that this Samuel was not a Samuel of God, but a Samuel of Satan.
3) You have neglected to show any evidence to show why this Samuel should be considered legitimate. Evil spirits of divination do make predictions of doom which do come true, and it is not as if Saul was under the protection of God any longer.
Would you be able to abstain from ad hominem and/or diversion and address the points raised please?
Again, an appeal for your argument to remain on topic, I will remind you that whether or not this was the real Samuel or not has no influence on the normal state of the dead. This "Samuel" was risen from the depths of the earth, he said that he had been disquieted, disturbed from rest, and that afterwards, Saul and his sons would join him. This does not conflict with what we are told of the normal state of death elsewhere, that the dead are at rest, they know nothing, that good and evil men alike are free from troubling.
The only thing this would influence is whether one can be temporarily summoned by a witch into an conscious ghostly state that can carry on a conversation. I realize that you likely WANT this to be the real Samuel because you may have thought that it would prove that "the dead are conscious" but it doesn't even do that for you. This is about the reach and realm of necromancy and witchcraft, and whether God allows witches to summon his saints from their rest.
The doctrine of eternal conscious torment is insidious, blasphemous, sadistic and 100% pagan. It is not taught in the Bible, and anyone who wants to know the truth about "hell" can find out very quickly.
basic english escapes rrYou are neglecting to answer the actual points. Is this on accidental, or by design?
1) You deflected the point that the scripture, even the same author of the books of Samuel, does use less words, and that "the thing calling itself Samuel" would also be called by the same word "Samuel." And to counter the "Samuel was not a thing" argument, yes, Samuel was a thing. Regardless of whether it was a devil or man, even the Christ-child was a "thing" (Luke 1:35) so could you put aside any pretended indignation and address the actual point?
2) Regardless of whether English translations add "the brother of" in 2 Samuel 21:19, you again avoided addressing the point. The literal Hebrew text itself says that Goliath was slain, which counters your argument that the lack of "He that spoke as" in front of "Samuel" means that it must therefore be the one and only true Samuel.
3) Scripture does not "say" it was the legitimate Samuel , any more than scripture says Goliath died twice. See points above. Whatever was speaking called itself Samuel. Regardless, yes, a specter would have spoken for God and would have known what was already told Saul. That's what false prophets and devils do.
What is missing is any sanction from God or scripture to show that this apparition was legitimate. The context shows that we should have no expectation of legitimacy, Saul was abandoned by God and went to a witch that had a familiar spirit. If you are interested in any sort of logical discussion, show me reason(s) why this Samuel should be accepted as true and legitimate.
As for ghosts, or disembodied souls that dwell consciously in the "Realm of the Dead"...
This is pretty much the irrefutable proof...
Matthew 14:26 But when the disciples saw him walking on the sea, they were terrified, and said, “It is a ghost!” and they cried out in fear.
And again...
Luke 24:36 Now as they said these things, Jesus Himself stood in the midst of them, and said to them, “Peace to you.” 37 But they were terrified and frightened, and supposed they had seen a spirit. 38 And He said to them, “Why are you troubled? And why do doubts arise in your hearts? 39 Behold My hands and My feet, that it is I Myself. Handle Me and see, for a spirit does not have flesh and bones as you see I have.”
Sorry @Rosenritter
If I could find an "actual point" in what your wrote, I would certainly address it.
That right there is why I can barely force myself to respond to anything you write.
And you think someone might be fooled enough to think it was the same Goliath that had already been slain, just because "the brother of" was not written down? :chuckle:
Would you be able to abstain from your condescension? No, I don't believe you can.
Samuel repeated to Saul what God had said.
But Saul had repented and Samuel had no knowledge of that....but God did. Saul was not yet dead and there is always hope until then. Hebrews 9:27 It could be that Saul was being given another chance by God. That's another topic and I wouldn't want to put it forth as a "red herring". But there is more to the story than the witch of En Dor.