You're interpreting the fictional elements of parable as reality. We are used to your repeated stupidity on this. When you don't respond intelligently or answer questions you are judged insincere.
you are still have not said in which verse Jesus lied .
Fact. This story is told to a multitude.
wrong
Luk 16:1**And He also said to His disciples,
Fact. Jesus did not speak to the multitudes without parable.
spoke to the multitudes
about the kingdom of God in parables
hell on the other hand he was speaking plainly.
Mat 13:10**And the disciples came, and said unto him, Why speakest thou unto them in parables?
Mat 13:11**He answered and said unto them, Because it is given unto you to know the mysteries of the
kingdom of heaven, but to them it is not given.
Mar 4:11 And he said unto them, Unto you it is given to know the mystery of the
kingdom of God: but unto them that are without, all these things are done in parables:
Luk 8:10**And he said, Unto you it is given to know the mysteries of the
kingdom of God: but to others in parables; that seeing they might not see, and hearing they might not understand.
Fact. Parables invoke fictional settings.
1. Luke 16 was to disciples so your multitude rule is out
2. Luke 16:19-31 is about hell not the kingdom of God so not a parable
3. Jesus did not lie in Luke 16
Take your perverted torment peddling elsewhere if you aren't going to at least pretend to be intelligent or rational.
Jesus taught that the rich man went to torment
did Jesus lie in Luke 16:24
Luk 16:24**And he cried and said, Father Abraham, have mercy on me and send Lazarus so that he may dip the tip of his finger in water and cool my tongue,
for I am tormented in this flame.