Derf
Well-known member
No it doesn't. From BLB.org: The KJV translates Strong's G1484 in the following manner: Gentiles (93x), nation (64x), heathen (5x), people (2x). The contrast is between "heathen" and "circumcision". Unless you are suggesting that all of those Jews going to synagogues Paul preached at were uncircumcised, which is ridiculous on its face.Nope... you poor confused soul.
That's NOT what the scripture says.
Read it AGAIN:
Gal 2:9 (AKJV/PCE)(2:9) And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we [should go] unto the heathen, and they unto the circumcision. The "heathen" includes unbelieving Jews.
So you're now saying that there were absolutely NO believing Jews in any of the synagogues Paul preached in? This gets weirder and weirder.Sometimes Paul went to synagogues and preached to UNBELIEVING Jews.
Yes, and Paul preached everywhere he went to both Jews and Gentiles. And you want me to believe that all of those "Jews" in all of those Gentile nations where Paul preached were both "unbelievers" (i.e., they did not believe in the Mosaic law) and uncircumcised. That's the definition of a Gentile, I agree. But it isn't in any way the definition of a "Jew". Yet Paul preached to Jews:Supra
Nope.
There were Jews and Gentiles in every place on earth.
[Act 13:5 KJV] And when they were at Salamis, they preached the word of God in the synagogues of the Jews: and they had also John to [their] minister.