Jose Fly
New member
I hope they answer.
We'll see. I'm not too optimistic.
I hope they answer.
There is no conflict between Genesis and evolutionary theory.
Whoever wrote Genesis 1 and 2 wrote two creation accounts with different orders and methods of creation.As far as I'm aware, no one here that claims that Genesis 1+2 are speaking of the creation account as being literal has claimed that the entire Bible is to be take literally, every verse.
Jesus said:
[JESUS]For if you believed Moses, you would believe Me; for he wrote about Me. But if you do not believe his writings, how will you believe My words?”[/JESUS] - John 5:46-47 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John5:46-47&version=KJ21
Moses said:
For in six days the Lord made the heavens and the earth, the sea, and all that is in them, and rested the seventh day. Therefore the Lord blessed the Sabbath day and hallowed it. - Exodus 20:11 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Exodus20:11&version=KJ2
Moses also wrote both Genesis 1 and Genesis 2. So the question is now, "Did Moses write two different creation accounts, as inspired by God, or did he write one creation account in both chapters, but with the first chapter he provided an overview, and with the second he went into the details a bit?"
Moses was reaffirmed by Jesus as writing something that should be taken as truth. Which is more likely, Jesus being wrong about what Moses wrote, or you being wrong about what Moses wrote?
You and others here have made it quite clear; evolution is completely incompatible with ... Christianity.
Whoever wrote Genesis 1 and 2 wrote two creation accounts with different orders and methods of creation.
Jesus wasn’t here to correct erroneous interpretations of history.
Yes, as a follower of Jesus Christ, I do not want people to be turned away from the gospel by unreasonable and unscriptural ideas.So you have a vested interest in showing that Genesis is not to be taken literally.
You are welcome. What are your motives?Thanks for showing your motives.
Yes they do.See, Cobra, words have meaning.
I understand you want to use that position as a way to deny the words of Genesis 1 and 2, but you are wrong.If what you say is true, and Genesis 1-2 are not to be taken literally, then it removes the entire foundation for the rest of the Bible, the most important part being that there would no longer be any reason for God to have come as a Man and died and be raised from the dead to pay for our sins.
They are stories that are obviously not literal history, as they are literally incompatible with each other and the evidence that God has given us in creation.My question to you is this: if Genesis 1,2 are not literal accounts of the creation story, are they just figures of speech/analogies? If so, what do those figures of speech mean/what do those analogies represent?
That's one.Correct.
There's more.That's one.
Why aren’t you?So now you're questioning the authorship of Genesis?
How silly.Now you have to prove, based on your assertion above in this post, that Moses did not write Genesis 1-2. If you can do that, then you might have a case to make.
And where did Jesus state definitively that He believed Moses wrote Genesis 1 and 2?Which is more likely?:
1. Jesus being wrong about what Moses wrote (which Jesus claims as something to be believed)
2. You being wrong about what Moses wrote
The text is anonymous.And here's another question for you:
In Exodus, did Moses write that God created in six days, and rested on the seventh?
Why aren’t you?
The text is anonymous.
How silly.
I don’t have to prove who did not write an anonymous book.
And where did Jesus state definitively that He believed Moses wrote Genesis 1 and 2?
The text is anonymous.
The Torah was referred to as Books of Moses, but that does not mean Moses wrote it all.
We know parts of the Torah were not written by Moses.
You are aware that the Torah includes the death, burial, and mourning of Moses
in addition to declaring that no such prophet has risen since?
Deut 34 Then Moses, the servant of the Lord, died there in the land of Moab, at the Lord's command. 6 He was buried in a valley in the land of Moab, opposite Beth-peor, but no one knows his burial place to this day. 7 Moses was one hundred twenty years old when he died; his sight was unimpaired and his vigor had not abated. 8 The Israelites wept for Moses in the plains of Moab thirty days; then the period of mourning for Moses was ended. 9 Joshua son of Nun was full of the spirit of wisdom, because Moses had laid his hands on him; and the Israelites obeyed him, doing as the Lord had commanded Moses. 10 Never since has there arisen a prophet in Israel like Moses, whom the Lord knew face to face. 11 He was unequaled for all the signs and wonders that the Lord sent him to perform in the land of Egypt, against Pharaoh and all his servants and his entire land, 12 and for all the mighty deeds and all the terrifying displays of power that Moses performed in the sight of all Israel.
I know you have adopted the tradition of Moses writing the entire Torah as a doctrine. But it is a only a tradition.
Do you think Moses wrote about his 30 day mourning period
and the fact that no such prophet had arisen since?
Back on topic, Genesis, Moses tells us, is literal Exodus 20:11 (The Bible itself says so). Anybody trying to say different isn't listening. I realize a good many Catholics get caught up in what science (fallible men) says. I'll question fallible men WAY before I question Moses and, as you said, it is also a good reason for the Reformation. Matthew 4:4 is literal. There is no 'wiggle' room for me and most Protestants.Obviously, there are many things in the Bible that are not literally true, and many stories that are parables. The Bible itself says so.
For either one convinced of Foreknowledge or omnicompetence, I think it amounts to the same thing that the front is united by all Protestants and a good number of Catholics on this point.Nor would it go against my beliefs that Moses could write that "Never since has there arisen a prophet in Israel like Moses, whom the Lord knew face to face," as, keeping in mind that God is the one who gave Moses (assuming it's Moses who wrote) the information he needed to write the five books, God had used Moses to do mighty things that He would not need to ever do again, and considering that God was writing a much larger story that went beyond what Moses wrote.
Back on topic, Genesis, Moses tells us, is literal Exodus 20:11 (The Bible itself says so). Anybody trying to say different isn't listening. I realize a good many Catholics get caught up in what science (fallible men) says. I'll question fallible men WAY before I question Moses and, as you said, it is also a good reason for the Reformation. Matthew 4:4 is literal. There is no 'wiggle' room for me and most Protestants.
Discussion then, is to take one's foundational suppositions and try to convince the other they are the right ones.
For either one convinced of Foreknowledge or omnicompetence, I think it amounts to the same thing that the front is united by all Protestants and a good number of Catholics on this point.
Many of us trust Jesus over Wiki... apparently not all of us.Imagining all Protestants are united on this point is inaccurate.
Simply google “who wrote Genesis” and the first thing to pop up is
Tradition credits Moses as the author of Genesis, as well as Exodus, Book of Leviticus, Numbers and most of Book of Deuteronomy, but modern scholars increasingly see them as a product of the 6th and 5th centuries BC.
Book of Genesis - Wikipedia
Wikipedia › wiki › Book_of_Genesis
Back on topic, Genesis, Moses tells us, is literal Exodus 20:11 (The Bible itself says so).
I realize a good many Catholics get caught up in what science (fallible men) says.
Matthew 4:4 is literal.
Imagining all Protestants are united on this point is inaccurate.
Many of us trust Jesus over Wiki... apparently not all of us.