genuineoriginal
New member
Nowhere in the Bible is Mary called the Mother of God.She's the Theotokos.
That is a blasphemous title that attributes Mary with power over God.
Nowhere in the Bible is Mary called the Mother of God.She's the Theotokos.
The evidence is heavily in favor of Luke the Jew. The evidence for him being a gentile is very, very thin and highly speculative.
So if you want to call that a toss-up, go ahead.
I certainly don't want to argue with you guys on what you believe, and if I'm wrong so be it. But when people reply with remarks such as this:
http://www.theologyonline.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4557068&postcount=5
http://www.theologyonline.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4557873&postcount=38
http://www.theologyonline.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4558672&postcount=99
http://www.theologyonline.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4559454&postcount=223
http://www.theologyonline.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4560159&postcount=306
And my favorite
http://www.theologyonline.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4560311&postcount=344
It does lead to confusion.
Indeed, it does!Jews received the oracles of God, doesn't it say that?
Your tradition is to eschew any history, and rely only on limited sources(scripture only) to decide matters of history. That leaves you at a definite disadvantage.
You can begin with this.I asked you to show in the Bible where Mary was revered as a perpetual virgin.
Don't even get me started with that "Mother of God" blaspheme.
Unfortunately for your assumptions, this is not the criterion of "virginity" in the 1st century in the context of Jesus' miraculous conception and birth. Rather, Mary herself stated the criterion in her reply to the angel: "...I do not know a man" (Lk. 1:34, NKJV). In modern terms, she had not had sexual relations, and it was specifically this which defined her as a "virgin." So much for your unbiblical assumption.The Jewish virginity test was to check for an intact hymen, which would be impossible for Mary to have had after she gave birth... and it doesn't grow back.
Yes, Romanist.... I understand your bogus reasoning and your use of the fallacy of the false dilemma.
If you reject Mary as Theotokos ("God-Bearer"), which of the first two premises do you deny?
- Jesus Christ was/is God Incarnate
- Mary carried and gave birth to Jesus Christ
- In this sense, therefore, Mary is the "Mother of God"
Gaudium de veritate,
Cruciform
+T+
- Jesus Christ was/is God Incarnate
- Mary carried and gave birth to Jesus Christ
- In this sense, therefore, Mary is the "Mother of God"
It spreads like a staph infection.-Jesus Christ was/is God.
-Elizabeth, who gave birth to John, was the cousin of Mary, who gave birth to the Lord Jesus Christ.
-Therefore, Elizabeth is "The Aunt of God," and John the Baptist is therefore "The Cousin of God."
Roman deception-a 6 year old can see through this blasphemous, satanic deception, sophistry.
Paul himself acknowledges Luke's Gentile identity when he includes Luke among his (Paul's) uncircumcised companions (Col. 4:10-14). Try again.No, he was a Jew.
Therefore, you reject the first premise, that Jesus Christ is God Incarnate. So noted.Mary was the mother of Jesus ONLY in regards to His HUMANITY and is NOT in ANY regard His mother in regards to His DEITY.
Mary is His PHYSICAL, biological mother. She is NOT God.
No one ever says she is God. That is you assuming. Jesus is God. Mary is his mother. You figure it out, it's pretty basic.
Is she considered co-redeemer/redemptrix among the Orthodox as well?
This explanation is much better than your incorrect understanding: http://www.levitt.com/essays/lukePaul himself acknowledges Luke's Gentile identity when he includes Luke among his (Paul's) uncircumcised companions (Col. 4:10-14). Try again.
The Lists in Colossians
In Colossians 4, the Apostle Paul closes his letter by listing the various people who are with him as he writes the epistle, and some of those who are addressed. In these lists Paul makes mention of some who are of “the circumcision” (Col. 4:10–11), and are, therefore, Jews. Although it is not perfectly clear which men are referred to, they are presumably the previous three: Aristarchus, Mark and Jesus called Justus. Paul apparently does not include Tychicus and Onesimus, mentioned before in verses 7–9, as being in the circumcision group.
Later in this same chapter, in verse 14, Paul refers to Luke, the beloved physician. The argument is made that, as Luke is not mentioned in the list of those of “the circumcision”, he therefore must not be a Jew. However, this is very slim evidence, indeed. In the above reference, Paul is speaking of his fellow workers in the preaching ministry. However, Luke was not ever described as being actively involved in the work of preaching, but was rather Paul’s personal physician and historian. It would not be appropriate to put Luke in the list with those who were active in the preaching ministry, regardless of background.
Thus, there are reasons other than background why Luke would not be included in the list of “the circumcision.” It is risky to build a concept on evidence which is so weak, and this is the strongest evidence in the Bible that those who believe Luke was a Gentile use to prove their point.
To call Mary "the mother of God" is calling her God.No one ever says she is God. That is you assuming. Jesus is God. Mary is his mother. You figure it out, it's pretty basic.
To call Mary "the mother of God" is calling her God.
As I said, Mary has NOTHING to do with the DEITY of Jesus Christ. Therefore, it is completely inappropriate and blasphemous to call her that.
His humanity is NOT His deity and His deity is NOT His humanity.
To mix and confuse these leads to heresies and false doctrines galore.
Your source's unsubstantiated speculation simply fails to convince. I'll stick with Paul's NT testimony and the informed conclusions of the vast majority of New Testament scholars throughout Christian history.This explanation is much better than your incorrect understanding: http://www.levitt.com/essays/luke