turbosixx
New member
I just want to call attention to this point you made in your previous post.
The verse I cited in parenthesis, Mark 1:4 explcitly states that John the Baptist baptized people "for the remission of sins"...
Mark 1:4 John came baptizing in the wilderness and preaching a baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.
The point being that you very definitely could get your sins forgiven while under the law. The reason this is so is because God knew Christ's death would be the needed propitiation for those sins. Thus the author of Hebrews was teaching that it wasn't the blood of bulls but the blood of Christ which the bulls merely symbolized that allowed for the forgiveness of sins. Prior to the cross, however, those who died as faithful believers could not go directly to heaven to be with God. They went instead to what is called "Abraham's Bosom" (Luke 16:22). This is the same place that Christ went during the three days He was dead and separated from the Father. (Luke 23:43).
Just an interesting rabbit trail!
Resting in Him,
Clete
Mark said "baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins." You didn't highlight repentance possible because of a paradigm .
I only know what I read. "Paul said, “John’s baptism was a baptism of repentance." He makes no mention of forgiveness of sins.
It seems Paul didn't see John’s baptism as sufficient. When he finds out they hadn’t even heard of the Holy Spirit he questions their baptism. When his suspicions are confirmed he baptizes them again in the name of Jesus.