Hi to all , and many say that they have drunk Jesus Blood and have eaten his body , like the RCC claims to do !!
Is this true , and when asked how it can be DONE , he refused to produce a verse !!
What he has not done is see what the bible says !!
In Matt 26:26 it reads , Take eat , this is my BODY !!
In verse 27 , For this is my blood , of the NEW Testament !!
But read what it says NEXT !!
I will not DRINK hence forth of this fruit of the vine , until that DAY when I drink it NEW with you in my Father's Kingdom !!
Oh Dan. I know that everyone is about to disagree with me. But, what is life without a little spice.
You have made the charge for others to read verses in context. I think it is a valid charge. I agree with Dodge and God's Truth here though. MAD's do not read a majority of the Bible in context. (Granted, that is another topic all together, so back to the original post)
In context, the Last Supper bears a lot of weight, correct? In this event, Christ is the only one with knowledge of what is going to happen to Him. He knows that He will literally be pouring His blood out for humanity. But, as you insisted, as do all Christians, the words spoken at the Last Supper have to bear an even deeper theological meaning.
First off, the quote about Christ not drinking of the fruit of the vine until in Heaven, that has no bearing on the original point that you insisted on discussing. Second, how is the drinking and eating of Christ's body and blood, symbolic? As with any good argument or point, you need to bring sufficient evidence to such a claim.
Now here is where the pitchforks will appear. Take the Last Supper, in
context, with John 6. Christ, talking to a multitude, says "Unless you eat my flesh and drink my blood, you will have no inheritance with me." And the people pondered and began to murmur. Why? Because, they understood His words to mean a literal consumption of His literal body and blood! But rather than correct them, since He knew their ponderings, He stated the same thing two more times. "Unless you eat my body and drink my blood...." At no point does Christ correct the people's thinking. Any time, in all of Scripture, there was a misunderstanding, or a parable, it is clearly addressed, or stated as such. So why, would John, the author who
lived with Christ, not add clarification here? Why would Christ, when the people left Him, not correct them, since they had just "misunderstood" Him?
The logical rationale would be that they did not misunderstand Him. That He was speaking literally. Combine that with the Last Supper, and you get a literal Communion, as the RCC holds.
But why trust just that? Why not examine writings of the days of the apostles?
Study of early letters and documents reveal that the apostles and early Christians believed in the literal Body and Blood of Christ being present in Communion and the Last Supper.
So, turn your charge for others on yourself. Read verses and passages in context. Not just this passage of discussion, but all passages. (as Dodge and God's Truth have pointed out)