Greetings again beameup,
It's not quite that simple. Let's take a comprehensive look into the Old Testament:
Behold, I send an ANGEL before thee, to keep thee in the way, and to bring thee into the place which I have prepared. Beware of him, and obey his voice, provoke him not; for he will not pardon your transgressions: for MY NAME IS IN HIM. - Exodus 23:20-21
I have no problem with the above, as it indicates that this angel was given the Yahweh Name because he represented God, acted and spoke on His behalf.
In a sense then we have two “Yahwehs”, but the scripture teaches that there is only One God, One Yahweh, One God the Father. Thus the only solution is that the One Yahweh confers His Name upon His representatives.
As you say that we should “take a comprehensive look into the Old Testament”, I imagine you have also considered when three men visited Abraham, and eventually it states that one of these is “Yahweh”, and while two angels went down to Sodom, “Yahweh” stays with Abraham and decides the fate of Sodom. Have you considered the two “Yahwehs” in the following?
Genesis 19:24 (KJV): Then the LORD rained upon Sodom and upon Gomorrah brimstone and fire from the LORD out of heaven;
My explanation of the above is that the Angel bearing God’s Name called upon Yahweh, God the Father in heaven, to rain fire from heaven to destroy Sodom. If this Yahweh on the earth was Jesus and fully equal with God the Father, why could not he have destroyed Sodom directly?
Also have you considered the two “Yahwehs” in the following?
Zechariah 3:1-2 (KJV): 1 And he shewed me Joshua the high priest standing before the angel of the LORD, and Satana standing at his right hand to resist him. 2 And the LORD said unto Satan, The LORD rebuke thee, O Satan; even the LORD that hath chosen Jerusalem rebuke thee: is not this a brand plucked out of the fire?
My explanation of the above is that the Angel bearing God’s Name called upon Yahweh, God the Father in heaven, to rebuke Satan. If this Yahweh on the earth was Jesus and fully equal with God the Father, why did not he himself rebuke Satan directly?
I also believe that the following is quoting and alluding to this incident and it identifies the Name bearing angel as Michael the archangel:
Jude 8-10 (KJV): 8 Likewise also these filthy dreamers defile the flesh, despise dominion, and speak evil of dignities. 9 Yet Michael the archangel, when contending with the devil he disputed about the body of Moses, durst not bring against him a railing accusation, but said, The Lord rebuke thee. 10 But these speak evil of those things which they know not: but what they know naturally, as brute beasts, in those things they corrupt themselves.
Kind regards
Trevor