God learns

nikolai_42

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By omniscience, God has seen the future already even before it takes place. It's all laid out before him like an open road map. He can see every avenue and every city all in one glance. However; like a traveler; God hasn't actually been to each place yet. David, in Psalm 139, said God's spirit is omnipresent, but I have yet to see a scripture that proves God has the ability to travel in time.

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For God not to have actually been to each place (in time) yet, I would say that contradicts what He says of Himself here:

I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.
Revelation 1:8

He repeats Himself in Revelation 1:11, 21:6 and 22:13. He doesn't say He sees the beginning and the end, but He IS the beginning and the end. He does not change (Mal 3:6) and He declares the end FROM the beginning (Isaiah 46:10). He IS the Great I AM (Exodus 3:14, John 8:58). These describe atemporality and completeness beyond time. He not only has been to each place, but He brought the places to be!
 

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By omniscience, God has seen the future already even before it takes place. It's all laid out before him like an open road map. He can see every avenue and every city all in one glance. However; like a traveler; God hasn't actually been to each place yet. David, in Psalm 139, said God's spirit is omnipresent, but I have yet to see a scripture that proves God has the ability to travel in time.
God is unified, immense, infinite and omnipresent all at the same time in the fullness of his being. Everywhere God is, He is there in the fullness of who He is.

When we say God is omnipresent this indicates the repletive presence of God in all created places and in relation to the limited presence of all creatures.

God's repletive presence means He is incapable of being judged or measured by circumscription or defined by physical limitations or spatial boundaries, but rather identified as filling space or acting upon space while at the same time transcending it. Naturally, God is eternally present everywhere, yet without the finite creation there is no “place.” Thus, theologians refer to God’s eternal presence, or His filling of all things, as His immensity, whereas omnipresence speaks to God’s relation to His creation. God’s immensity and omnipresence are in one respect the same, yet immensity emphasizes God’s transcendence, while omnipresence emphasizes his immanence. This distinction is actually quite important because it clarifies that God was everywhere present at creation of the temporal world. And, now, as the Creator and Sustainer of His creation, God must be present to all space with the fullness of His being in order that it may exist at all.

God, as non-embodied spirit John 4:24 (not a spirit like angels, but is spirit), is everywhere present. God does not extend himself—this would be to divide himself into part, which is impossible—nor does God defuse himself like the sun does its rays. God fills all space. In other words, the limitations of space have no reference to him. He is not absent from any portion of space, nor more present in one portion than another. God’s omnipresence is not a quantifiable thing but rather it is part of His very nature. God is not present in things as their (the thing's) essence—this would make God pantheistic, but He is present in the fullness of His essence in that He fills and sustains all things.

Contrary to some open theist's odd notions, God, being everywhere present, does not literally come or go to or from specific places. Where such language is employed (e.g., Gen. 11:5; Isa. 64:1–2), it must be recognized for what it is—metaphorical language indicating or invoking a special manifestation of God’s working either in grace or judgment.

Since God is not a physical being who takes up space, it would be wrong to think of God as a sort of gas that fills up the universe. In that sense, He is not everywhere, since God is not a thing, like water or air, that can take up space. Rather, God is everywhere insofar as He is not limited by a spatio-temporal body, knows everything immediately without benefit of sensory organs, and sustains everything that exists. In other words, God’s omnipresence logically follows from his omniscience, incorporeality, omnipotence, metaphysical uniqueness, and role as Creator and Sustainer of the universe. Although neither identical to creation (as in pantheism) nor limited by it…God is immanent, spiritually and personally present at every point of the universe.

AMR
 

iouae

Well-known member
When I want to know what God is like I go to places like Rev 4 and 5 which describe God the Father as being in one locality (heaven Rev4:1), God is a "he" (Rev 4:3) who sits like any human (Rev 4:3) on a throne (Rev 4:3) and God has body parts such as a right hand (Rev 5:1).

This is the same as the description Ezekiel saw and described in Ezek 1:26 where Ezekiel saw a glorious "man" (God the Father) on a throne...
26 and upon the likeness of the throne was the likeness as the appearance of a man above upon it.

This "man" has loins vs 27 "...from the appearance of his loins even upward, and from the appearance of his loins even downward, I saw as it were the appearance of fire, and it had brightness round about.

So God in heaven seems very much like things we are used to. God looks like a man, sits like a man, things look pretty solid, and by all accounts, God and heaven is a lot like life on earth.

So to a simple boy like me who's background is science, not theology, I feel I have a pretty good idea of how God operates.

Theologians have had centuries to sit in monasteries and dream up non-Biblical words and concepts like omniscience, omnipresence, transcendence, immanence, replete presence, immensity to describe God.

Christ gave his disciples a taste of the Kingdom of God when He was transfigured. Still He looked like a man, a glorified one.

When Moses wanted to have a fuller experience of the real God, Moses sees a man's back, or the back side of God. (Ex 33:22)

Life in heaven is much like life on earth.
Time passes serially in heaven just as time passes serially on earth. By that I mean, one thing happens after another. Effect always occurs after cause. Time exists in heaven as it does on earth.

And like on earth there is ZERO ability to foretell the future, there is nothing even in scripture which leads me to believe that the future is like the past, written in stone.
 

iouae

Well-known member
There are thousands of ways of trashing the idea of predestination, or the idea that God knows every detail of the future.

This proof just occurred to me. See what you think of it.

Do you all agree that Lucifer, now Satan, was around God a long time?

So if anyone knew how God operates, it should be Satan?

So, in all the millions or billions of years that Lucifer was at God's throne, before Lucifers fall, Lucifer should have figured out that God knew the future, every time. Especially since Lucifer was a bright chap.

So, why would a bright chap like Lucifer (his name means that he is bright) take a bet with God, that he (Lucifer/Satan) could get Job to curse God? If God had everything predestined, Satan would know that it is useless trying to outguess God, and in the end Satan would just end up looking stupid.

Here is the reason why Satan thought he could get Job to curse God. Because Satan KNOWS that the future is not predestined. Satan knew he stood some kind of a chance of turning Job to bitterness against God. And when Satan fails the first time, Satan begs God to allow him to touch Jobs body with boils. Still Satan thinks he can win the bet.

If Satan knew all was predestined, Satan would know there was no point making a public bet with God, and then being humiliated by losing. The whole story is found in Job:2 onwards.
 

iouae

Well-known member
Another quick proof against predestination.

Mark 13:32
But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father

Different members of the Godhead seem to have different knowledge. Christ does not seem to know the day or hour of His own return. He can look forward to learning that, when the Father gives the word, that He must return. Christ does not know what's predestined.

Likewise when James and John asked to sit on either side of Christ, Christ said it was up to the Father to decide. Again, Christ does not have total knowledge of the future, since the future still is to be written.
 

Derf

Well-known member
I will assume, since you didn't really address my elaboration on your analogy (for those that just jump in here, scroll down in the link to find the elaboration), and since your first couple of sentences below capture the essence of my elaboration, that you agree with it.

God ordains all that happens. Thus it will happen, else it was not ordained. What has been ordained cannot not happen, hence these are factual objects of knowledge to God (knowledge to God, foreknowledge as we understand these things as there is no "beforehand" in God, else he would be a discursive thinker as are His creatures). God's decree comprehends all causes, conditions, successions, and relations of that which is decreed (see more here).
I've read through most of your linked thread before. I think your scripture proofs aren't always. For instance, "2. They are immutable. Ps. 33:11; Isa. 46:9." While God's counsel stands forever, you don't really explain, nor provide verses for explaining, what "God's counsel" entails. If you presume that it means "everything that happens", and from that prove that "everything that happens" is immutably determined before there were any active agents to make it happen besides God, you once again make my elaboration of your analogy firm. And that puts us back to the point that if God does everything (since it is all determined before any other agents were around to help with the determination), God is the author of evil. He may have had a purpose for authoring evil, but He determined it would come to pass, and it did, whether you call it "determinism" or "ordination". But since you also say that God did/does not author evil, you have a rather severe contradiction to deal with. I think time is where we get into trouble. If God decrees everything immutably, then He is the author of evil. If He, instead, decrees some things early on (at creation),
and some things later (after the fall, for instance), He is dealing with evil. Some of His "dealing with evil" could have been preplanned, knowing that evil will come with independent beings.

We must understand the decree of God, to be the eternal, volitional, all-wise, sovereign, and immutable purpose of God concerning all and every matter, comprehending both the time and the manner in which these matters will occur. The decree includes the volitional will of the creature exercised per causal conditions, successive events, relations between events and conditions, etc. God's knowledge of what happens is because He comprehends all that He has decreed to occur in created time equally vividly.

Why must we "understand the decree of God, to be the eternal, volitional, all-wise, sovereign, and immutable purpose of God concerning all and every matter"? Is that to fit the bible, or to fit your conception of God?

Your statement about "the decree includ[ing] the volitional will of the creature" is true if God first determined (and built into each man) exactly how each man would react to the situations He would put him in. But if God first determines such, then goes on to put the man in those situations, God has predestined man to do evil, at least in the cases where the man does evil (which is in everything he does before he is saved, right?). So there's a lot of evil--sinning, to be more precise--that you are assigning to God's account.

God’s foreknowledge (προγνωσις: Rom. 8:29; 11:2; 1 Pet. 1:2; cf. Acts 2:23) is not a passive form of precognition, not a state of consciousness, but—like the Hebrew ידע (Hos. 13:5 MT, NRSV note; Amos 3:2; etc.)—a self-determination of God, prior to its realization in temporal history, to assume a certain specific relation to the objects of His knowledge. It is most closely related to God’s purpose (προθεσις), foreordination (προορισμος), and election (ἐκλογη), and is an act of his good pleasure (εὐδοκια).
Yes, I'm glad we are in agreement here that this is what you are claiming--determinism. But there are no "objects of His knowledge" until He creates them. Unless you are saying that it was determined for Him that He would create them. And you can see where that leads.

Why you assume God must see what is going to happen in order to know it will happen eludes me. God is not contingent upon anything at all. He just is (asceity). God, by virtue of His decree, has knowledge of all that will exist and occur in time, so that according to His will, by an act of His omnipotence, all matters are transferred from a state of potential existence to actual existence. It thus logically follows that God’s eternal knowledge of all matters necessarily follows from the fact that He has eternally decreed them.

AMR
It's funny that you say this (the first sentence), because if you read my post that you first replied to, I showed that the idea that God sees events ahead of time in order to know what's going to happen is untenable, leaving the closed future proponents no alternative but what you describe above--though it carries with it the conclusion above, too.

Let me restate it this way. The ONLY way for God to know what is going to happen in the future, is for Him to bring it to pass. Thus, when He ordains something, He makes sure it happens. If He ordains everything from the foundation of the world, then He will make sure everything happens. Sin/evil is no different from anything else, thus if it happens, He ordained it and then He brought it to pass.

Is 41 (often used ineffectively against Open Theism) is a whole chapter dedicated to telling both what God did in the past and what He will do in the future, and explaining that idols can't do anything. Thus, if He knows anything about the future, I agree with you that it is because He will bring it to pass (or set something up so that it will come to pass).

4 Who has performed and done [it], Calling the generations from the beginning? 'I, the LORD, am the first; And with the last I [am] He.' " [Isa 41:4 NKJV]

This is why I've stated elsewhere that Open Theists are much closer to Calvinism than they are to Arminian thought when it comes to the future--the things that are determined are determined because God has determined to do them (or has set something in motion such that they happen, like the seasons of the year). But Calvinism doesn't allow for the rest of the statement--the things that are NOT determined...

Thanks for the exchange, AMR. I hope we can continue it.
Derf
 

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"... before there were any active agents to make it happen
It makes no difference that moral agents did not yet exist in created time from God's perspective. He has decreed what will be, and, as God, it cannot not be. You simply do not understand this issue as you continue to raise it.

Why must we "understand the decree of God, to be the eternal, volitional, all-wise, sovereign, and immutable purpose of God concerning all and every matter"? Is that to fit the bible, or to fit your conception of God?
I provided a link that details (with plenty of Scripture) the decree. Did you actually read it?

Your statement about "the decree includ[ing] the volitional will of the creature" is true if God first determined (and built into each man) exactly how each man would react to the situations He would put him in. But if God first determines such, then goes on to put the man in those situations, God has predestined man to do evil, at least in the cases where the man does evil (which is in everything he does before he is saved, right?). So there's a lot of evil--sinning, to be more precise--that you are assigning to God's account.
You continue to ignore the fact that the decree establishes man's free will (liberty of spontaneity). Hence it incorporates the person's own volitions with no violence done to them. How much reading have you done on matter of the decree of God? Perhaps you could start here. Until you have a more solid grounding in the topic we will continue to talk past one another.

Let me restate it this way. The ONLY way for God to know what is going to happen in the future, is for Him to bring it to pass. Thus, when He ordains something, He makes sure it happens. If He ordains everything from the foundation of the world, then He will make sure everything happens. Sin/evil is no different from anything else, thus if it happens, He ordained it and then He brought it to pass.
I have no problem with the statements. Your continued claim that God's decree makes him the author of sin is grievous error. God is not the doer of sin. Moral agents are responsible for their actions. God's decree includes their acting per their own volitional liberty of spontaneity. You want to seek to determine "how" God pulls that off. No answer from me, others, or Scripture will be forthcoming. It simply has not been revealed (Deut. 29:29).

Who killed Duncan? Macbeth or Shakespeare? Who is responsible?

I agree that both Macbeth and Shakespeare are responsible, at different levels of reality, for the death of Duncan. But as I analyze the language that we typically use in such contexts, it seems clear to me that we would not normally say that Shakespeare killed Duncan. Shakespeare wrote the murder into his play. But the murder took place in the world of the play, not the real world of the author. Macbeth did it, not Shakespeare. We sense the rightness of Macbeth paying for his crime. But we would certainly consider it very unjust if Shakespeare were tried and put to death for killing Duncan. And no one suggests that there is any problem in reconciling Shakespeare’s benevolence with his omnipotence over the world of the drama. Indeed, there is reason for us to praise Shakespeare for raising up this character, Macbeth, to show us the consequences of sin.

The difference between levels, then, may have moral, as well as metaphysical, significance. It may explain why the writers of Scripture, who do not hesitate to say that God brings about sin and evil, do not accuse God of wrongdoing. The relationship between God and us, of course, is different in some respects from that between an author and his characters. Most significantly, we are real and Macbeth is not. But between God and us there is a vast difference in the kind of reality and in relative status. God is the absolute controller of and authority over nature and history. He is the lawgiver, and we receive his laws. He is the head of the covenant; we are the servants. He has devised the creation for his own glory; we seek his glory, rather than our own. He makes us as the potter makes pots, for his own purposes. He has many rights and prerogatives we do not. Do these differences not put God in a different moral category as well?

The transcendence of God plays a significant role in biblical responses to the problem of evil. Because God is who he is, the covenant Lord, he is not required to defend himself against charges of injustice. He is the judge, and we are not. Very often in Scripture, when something happens that calls God’s goodness into question, he pointedly refrains from explaining. Indeed, he often rebukes those people who question him. Job demanded an interview with God, so that he could ask God the reasons for his sufferings (Job 23:1-7;31:35-37). But when he met God, God asked the questions: “Brace yourself like a man; I will question you, and you shall answer me” (Job 38:3). The questions mostly revealed Job’s ignorance about God’s creation: if Job does not understand the ways of the animals, how can he presume to call God’s motives into question? He does not even understand earthly things; how can he presume to debate heavenly things? God is not subject to the ignorant evaluations of his creatures.

This is why I've stated elsewhere that Open Theists are much closer to Calvinism than they are to Arminian thought when it comes to the future--the things that are determined are determined because God has determined to do them (or has set something in motion such that they happen, like the seasons of the year). But Calvinism doesn't allow for the rest of the statement--the things that are NOT determined...

There is nothing that is not determined, including, contrary to open theism, that which will exist, the future. The openist that declares some parts of the future have been determined by God is just being inconsistent. God knowing any part of the future, meaning that which cannot not exist, is God knowing all the future. Your jejune argument that openism is more aligned with Calvinism than Arminianism ignores the polar opposition of open theism with Calvinism. It ignores the real reason philosophers like Boyd, Sanders, etc., attempting to formulate open theism in the first place: to make man the captain of his own destiny and place God in the Dock.

AMR
 

WeberHome

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I have yet to see a scripture that clearly, conclusively, and without ambiguity attests that God has the ability to travel in time.

Granted there are a number of imaginative folk out there whose skill with sophistry, semantics, and double-speak are able to make it appear that God can travel in time, but that kind of theology is below me; it's unworthy of my attention.

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Derf

Well-known member
It makes no difference that moral agents did not yet exist in created time from God's perspective. He has decreed what will be, and, as God, it cannot not be. You simply do not understand this issue as you continue to raise it.

I understand it enough to agree with what you've written here. Do I need to understand it further so that I somehow disagree with it?

It follows, then, that:
If God decrees what will be (I don't deny that He can and often does), and there are no other agents involved in the decree when it is decreed (neither of us believe that there were in the case we're discussing), and God doesn't somehow use prior information ("see" into the future) to inform His decrees, then the only way that God can ensure His decrees will stand is by enforcing them with his power (I think you agree with me on this, too).

His power, then, is His way of enforcing His decrees, and therefore, any decrees that He makes are then brought about by His own power and nothing else, because, as God, it cannot not be (to quote a very wise man).

So, if everything is decreed, and everything decreed is enforced by His power, then His power is the agent that makes sure sin happens.
I provided a link that details (with plenty of Scripture) the decree. Did you actually read it?
Um, I actually said I read it, and I commented on a part of it. Is this what you mean below by "talking past one another"?

You continue to ignore the fact that the decree establishes man's free will (liberty of spontaneity). Hence it incorporates the person's own volitions with no violence done to them. How much reading have you done on matter of the decree of God? Perhaps you could start here. Until you have a more solid grounding in the topic we will continue to talk past one another.
Talking past one another is a two-way street, I suppose. Is solid grounding what I need, or are you saying that until I agree with your perspective we will continue to talk past each other? I didn't see anything new in Pink's introductory article. I read through some of Brakel's, too. I'll peruse more as I have some time, perhaps.

I have no problem with the statements. Your continued claim that God's decree makes him the author of sin is grievous error. God is not the doer of sin. Moral agents are responsible for their actions. God's decree includes their acting per their own volitional liberty of spontaneity. You want to seek to determine "how" God pulls that off. No answer from me, others, or Scripture will be forthcoming. It simply has not been revealed (Deut. 29:29).

My claim was not that God is the author of sin, but that the statements, if applied to everything, make God the author of sin. The logical conclusion is that either the statements are in error, or that their application to everything is in error (or that God really is the author of sin, which I thought, until I read your "transcendence" paragraph, that we both reject, though I'll assume for now you still do). Since we both agree on the statements, only the applicability is up for discussion. (Brakel, in your link above, confirms that your position is that the application is to EVERYTHING:
Brakel said:
In decreeing creation, God has eternally purposed and decreed within Himself where, when, how, and of what nature each creature should be, and what each should do and encounter.
But Brakel also makes the statement that the doctrine of God's decrees about EVERYTHING can be "deduced from the Word of God". Is that because it isn't explicitly stated? And if "deduce" means to "arrive at (a fact or a conclusion) by reasoning; draw as a logical conclusion", as Google says it does, why does it then take precedence over other things, potentially contradictory, that are also deduced from the Word of God?

Brakel also quotes Job 23:14, "For he performeth [the thing that is] appointed for me: and many such [things are] with him" which affirms my assertion that the things God decrees, He actually performs. If, then, God decrees someone (like Job, for instance) will sin, Brakel seems to think that God will perform that in Job.

I'm not seeking, by the way, to determine how God pulls of something that I don't believe God is trying to pull off.



The difference between levels, then, may have moral, as well as metaphysical, significance. It may explain why the writers of Scripture, who do not hesitate to say that God brings about sin and evil, do not accuse God of wrongdoing. The relationship between God and us, of course, is different in some respects from that between an author and his characters. Most significantly, we are real and Macbeth is not. But between God and us there is a vast difference in the kind of reality and in relative status. God is the absolute controller of and authority over nature and history. He is the lawgiver, and we receive his laws. He is the head of the covenant; we are the servants. He has devised the creation for his own glory; we seek his glory, rather than our own. He makes us as the potter makes pots, for his own purposes. He has many rights and prerogatives we do not. Do these differences not put God in a different moral category as well?
I think the difference is in authority. God can kill a human, because He made humans, thus they belong to Him. A human can't kill a human, because humans belong to God, not to other humans.

The reason, in my mind, that God's distinction between humans is given in several places as one Who does not lie, is because it is the one thing where sin would be obvious with God. He can't murder, as described above. He can't steal, because everything came from Him. He obviously wouldn't worship any creature lower than Himself, since He made them all. He DECIDED to take the day of rest, giving us a pattern. He can't disobey parents or covet or commit adultery. The only thing He could possibly do, I think, that could be called "sin" is to lie. To tell us something that isn't true. So then, if He gives information that changes contradictorily, the only way to interpret it without Him lying is if the information is true in both cases, and the circumstances have changed. If both cases were about the future, then the "future" has changed. If the "future" changes in any respect, then God did not decree both of those "futures", else He would have lied. (Hezekiah's sickness is in my mind, here.)

The transcendence of God plays a significant role in biblical responses to the problem of evil. Because God is who he is, the covenant Lord, he is not required to defend himself against charges of injustice. He is the judge, and we are not. Very often in Scripture, when something happens that calls God’s goodness into question, he pointedly refrains from explaining. Indeed, he often rebukes those people who question him. Job demanded an interview with God, so that he could ask God the reasons for his sufferings (Job 23:1-7;31:35-37). But when he met God, God asked the questions: “Brace yourself like a man; I will question you, and you shall answer me” (Job 38:3). The questions mostly revealed Job’s ignorance about God’s creation: if Job does not understand the ways of the animals, how can he presume to call God’s motives into question? He does not even understand earthly things; how can he presume to debate heavenly things? God is not subject to the ignorant evaluations of his creatures.
Then why is there a problem when I suggest that He is the author of evil in your view? You've just said that nothing is sin for God, because we don't know His motives, and therefore God cannot sin. Do you really think that God's inability to sin has to do with the definition of sin for God, and not due to his character?

There is nothing that is not determined, including, contrary to open theism, that which will exist, the future.
A bold statement. Does stating it establish it?

One more comment from the Free Grace Broadcaster Tract:
Martin Lloyd Jones disappointed me a bit when he added to scripture in saying (my underlining), "Before they were ever born, before they were ever conceived, God had chosen Jacob and not Esau." Is it necessary to add to scripture to win such an argument? Then it seems the points do not stand on their own merit and on scripture.

Derf
 

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If God decrees what will be (I don't deny that He can and often does), and there are no other agents involved in the decree when it is decreed (neither of us believe that there were in the case we're discussing), and God doesn't somehow use prior information ("see" into the future) to inform His decrees, then the only way that God can ensure His decrees will stand is by enforcing them with his power (I think you agree with me on this, too).
There is no contradiction in those two views, that is, God’s decree and man’s freedom, because we can distinguish between the decree and its execution. This is because God executes His decree in the works of creation and providence. There is also the plain teaching from Scripture that God is sovereign and man is responsible. Yes, there is a tension between these two views, and Scripture does not alleviate that tension (see Job for example), nor should we, by poor attempts to re-define sovereignty or [/i]freedom[/i].

The execution of God’s decree in the works of creation can be of necessity, e.g., the motion of the planets, atomic spin, physical laws of nature, etc. Moreover, the execution of God’s decree by providence are from free acts of moral agents, and from a perfect regard to future event contingencies, as when God told David what Saul and Keilah would do to him if David remained in Keilah (1 Samuel 23:9-13). Thus, God’s providential control of the circumstances of man’s free choices does not overrule man’s inclinations.

God’s decree is absolute while the execution of the decree takes contingency/conditionality into account as things which God has also decreed. We can speak of ultimate causality so far as the decree of all things is concerned. Hopefully no Christian denies God is the ultimate First Cause, the antecedent cause, of all things, no matter what our differing views. Likewise, we must not deny the existence of secondary causes as the proximate causes of that which happens, including sin. Your conclusions of my position (that they result in making God the author of sin) are just plain wrong.

When speaking of the execution of the decree we must only allow active influence from God in relation to grace and redemption; we must deny active influence from God in relation to sin and damnation because the Bible rejects all views that God sins or tempts to sin, or condemns men for any reason other than their own free choice to sin.

Martin Lloyd Jones disappointed me a bit when he added to scripture in saying (my underlining), "Before they were ever born, before they were ever conceived, God had chosen Jacob and not Esau." Is it necessary to add to scripture to win such an argument? Then it seems the points do not stand on their own merit and on scripture.
So would the open theist state denying God's exhaustive knowledge of things future. Per open theism, God can only predict the future with very high degrees of accuracy, for God is very, very, smart. A probabilistic exercise by God who cannot epistemologically know (as in having objects of knowledge before His mind vividly), for these creatures do not yet exist in time. Sigh.

I guess The Doctor was just wrong when he read Romans 9:11. :AMR1:

AMR
 

nikolai_42

Well-known member
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I have yet to see a scripture that clearly, conclusively, and without ambiguity attests that God has the ability to travel in time.

Granted there are a number of imaginative folk out there whose skill with sophistry, semantics, and double-speak are able to make it appear that God can travel in time, but that kind of theology is below me; it's unworthy of my attention.

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I don't believe He travels through time, but rather that He transcends it in the sense that He permeates it at all places and all times.

Daniel was given the vision and interpretation of the statue which represented a sequence of persecuting world powers. That statue represented the whole thing at a glance because this is what God had determined. Not only did He determine it, He saw it all at a glance. We, in time, have to see the statue (so to speak) being dragged through time at 60 seconds per minute. So we "see" the statue an infinitely thin slice at a time. God brought it all to pass at once before it started to be revealed in time. He doesn't go back and change what happened in the past - however He is able to raise up descendants of Abraham from the stones! How is one able to do that - insinuate a newly created human from a rock into a genealogy - yet does not do it (i.e. it is a possibility at all times) and not transcend yet exist in all times? David clearly declared He is in all places at once (though I make my bed in hell, behold, thou art there - Psalm 139:8 as part of a larger statement on the omnipresence of God). How can He inhabit all space yet only be local in time? That would be too limiting in light of all the declarations in Revelation that He is Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, the first and the last.
 

WeberHome

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I don't believe He travels through time, but rather that He transcends it in the sense that He permeates it at all places and all times.

David, in Psalm 139, said God's spirit is omnipresent, but I have yet to see a scripture that clearly, conclusively, and without ambiguity attests that God has the ability to transcend and/or permeate time.

In other words; I have seen scriptures attesting that God is everywhere and every place all at once in the now, but none attesting that He is everywhere and every place all at once in the past, present, and future.

Post #51 is a good example of the kind of tricky logic that I spoke of in post #48

FYI: One of the purposes of Christ's teachers is to steer his followers away from tricky logic.

Eph 4:11-15 . . He is the one who gave these gifts to the church: the apostles, the prophets, the evangelists, and the pastors and teachers. 12 Their responsibility is to equip God's people to do his work and build up the church, the body of Christ, 13 until we come to such unity in our faith and knowledge of God's Son that we will be mature and full grown in the Lord, measuring up to the full stature of Christ.

. . .Then we will no longer be like children, forever changing our minds about what we believe because someone has told us something different or because someone has cleverly lied to us and made the lie sound like the truth.

/
 

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I have yet to see a scripture that clearly, conclusively, and without ambiguity attests that God has the ability to travel in time.
So that is your standard? One wonders if you even believe in the Trinity or God, as trinity is not mentioned in Scripture, nor is God mentioned in Esther. :AMR:

Take some quick tests and let us know how you did:

Trinity:
https://challies.typeform.com/to/I1ntTT

Scripture:
http://www.challies.com/resources/a-quiz-on-the-doctrine-of-scripture

Doctrine of Christ:
https://challies.typeform.com/to/zfV3mn

The Atonement
https://www.challies.com/resources/a-quiz-on-the-atonement

Doctrine of Salvation
http://www.challies.com/resources/quiz-doctrine-salvation

AMR
 

JudgeRightly

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So that is your standard?

When dealing with Theology, is Scripture not to be the Standard?

One wonders if you even believe in the Trinity or God, as trinity is not mentioned in Scripture, nor is God mentioned in Esther. :AMR:

No, of course not, but the concept or idea of the Trinity is taught throughout the Bible. Just because the word isn't there doesn't mean that the idea isn't.

The same is true with God being able to learn. Nowhere does it state (at least as far as I'm aware) "God learns" verbatim, but the concept of God learning is shown throughout the Bible.

I think one of the clearest examples of God learning something, and certainly one of the most interesting, is in Jeremiah, where God is speaking about His people, who were sacrificing their children in offering to Molech:

And they built the high places of Baal which are in the Valley of the Son of Hinnom, to cause their sons and their daughters to pass through the fire to Molech, which I did not command them, nor did it come into My mind that they should do this abomination, to cause Judah to sin.’ - Jeremiah 32:35 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Jeremiah32:35&version=NKJV

God did command that if any of His children, or if any strangers who dwell in Israel, sacrifice their children to Molech, they should be put to death (Leviticus 20:2-5). That makes it extremely clear that God never expected them to break that law, so it made Him furious to learn that not only could they do it, but they would and did.
 

iouae

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When dealing with Theology, is Scripture not to be the Standard?



No, of course not, but the concept or idea of the Trinity is taught throughout the Bible. Just because the word isn't there doesn't mean that the idea isn't.

The same is true with God being able to learn. Nowhere does it state (at least as far as I'm aware) "God learns" verbatim, but the concept of God learning is shown throughout the Bible.

I think one of the clearest examples of God learning something, and certainly one of the most interesting, is in Jeremiah, where God is speaking about His people, who were sacrificing their children in offering to Molech:

And they built the high places of Baal which are in the Valley of the Son of Hinnom, to cause their sons and their daughters to pass through the fire to Molech, which I did not command them, nor did it come into My mind that they should do this abomination, to cause Judah to sin.’ - Jeremiah 32:35 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Jeremiah32:35&version=NKJV

God did command that if any of His children, or if any strangers who dwell in Israel, sacrifice their children to Molech, they should be put to death (Leviticus 20:2-5). That makes it extremely clear that God never expected them to break that law, so it made Him furious to learn that not only could they do it, but they would and did.

Nice points JudgeRightly.

And when God reacts with similar emotions to what we do on learning something, such as with surprise and anger at them sacrificing their children, God's emotions are spontaneous. And for God to be surprised and react with genuine emotion, He could not have known before the time what would occur, or the emotion would be scripted like a play-actor. And God is not impressed with play-actors whom He calls "hypocrites".
 

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I think one of the clearest examples of God learning something, and certainly one of the most interesting, is in Jeremiah, where God is speaking about His people, who were sacrificing their children in offering to Molech:

And they built the high places of Baal which are in the Valley of the Son of Hinnom, to cause their sons and their daughters to pass through the fire to Molech, which I did not command them, nor did it come into My mind that they should do this abomination, to cause Judah to sin.’ - Jeremiah 32:35.

"Well, I never!" Think about it and it will come to you. :AMR:

Your wooden literalism, when it suits you, would have God with hands, arms, actually having to visit Sodom to see what is happening, etc. :AMR1:

AMR
 

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One wonders if you even believe in the Trinity

Why stop with just a trio? With a little stretch of your one's imagination, he might even succeed in conjuring up support for a quartet; maybe even a quintet or a sextet. (Ezek 1:1-28)


nor is God mentioned in Esther.

2Tim 3:16 . . All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness

Esther is valuable as an example of how the selfish ambitions of just one arrogant Jew can endanger the lives of thousands; beginning with the life of his own niece. Once she was in the harem, Esther would never be allowed to travel or go out shopping, nor ever have a boyfriend or a husband or a family of her own; all of that lost forever to provide her impious uncle with a political advantage.

Ironically, the Jews razz and demean Haman during the holiday of Purim, when by all rights they ought to soundly condemn Mordecai for putting his people in mortal danger of genocide due to his petty refusal to give Haman the respect that his position deserved.

I get very annoyed with people today in my own country refusing to stand for the national anthem due to their petty discontent with US President Donald Trump. God forbid that card-carrying Christians get caught up in it. If you can't respect the man, then at least respect the office of US President. Don't be a Mordecai.

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Derf

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There is no contradiction in those two views, that is, God’s decree and man’s freedom, because we can distinguish between the decree and its execution. This is because God executes His decree in the works of creation and providence. There is also the plain teaching from Scripture that God is sovereign and man is responsible. Yes, there is a tension between these two views, and Scripture does not alleviate that tension (see Job for example), nor should we, by poor attempts to re-define sovereignty or [/i]freedom[/i].

The execution of God’s decree in the works of creation can be of necessity, e.g., the motion of the planets, atomic spin, physical laws of nature, etc. Moreover, the execution of God’s decree by providence are from free acts of moral agents, and from a perfect regard to future event contingencies, as when God told David what Saul and Keilah would do to him if David remained in Keilah (1 Samuel 23:9-13). Thus, God’s providential control of the circumstances of man’s free choices does not overrule man’s inclinations.

God’s decree is absolute while the execution of the decree takes contingency/conditionality into account as things which God has also decreed. We can speak of ultimate causality so far as the decree of all things is concerned. Hopefully no Christian denies God is the ultimate First Cause, the antecedent cause, of all things, no matter what our differing views. Likewise, we must not deny the existence of secondary causes as the proximate causes of that which happens, including sin. Your conclusions of my position (that they result in making God the author of sin) are just plain wrong.
I don't think so. You seem to take great pains to distinguish between God's inclinations and man's inclinations, but if God ordains both the acts and the inclinations, before the men exist and without looking into the future to see what those inclinations are going to be, man's inclinations are really His inclinations. You can talk all you want about man's responsibility once men are present, but before that time, the assurance of those inclinations, to get the result He wants, assigns those inclinations to Him.

When speaking of the execution of the decree we must only allow active influence from God in relation to grace and redemption; we must deny active influence from God in relation to sin and damnation because the Bible rejects all views that God sins or tempts to sin, or condemns men for any reason other than their own free choice to sin.
I appreciate the necessity of what we must allow and deny in terms of God's influence--I know you don't want to assign the sin to God's account. I'm just saying that if the sin is determined before anyone else is around to help determine it, and the basis of determination is not knowledge of the future, the sin is the determiner's. This is different, I believe, than allowing sin (in general) based on an exhaustive understanding of what "free will" will mean in an individual or a population.


So would the open theist state denying God's exhaustive knowledge of things future. Per open theism, God can only predict the future with very high degrees of accuracy, for God is very, very, smart. A probabilistic exercise by God who cannot epistemologically know (as in having objects of knowledge before His mind vividly), for these creatures do not yet exist in time. Sigh.
I'm pretty sure that is NOT what I've conveyed in this thread. (If my associating myself with Open Theism sent you down that road, I'm sorry about that--I'm using the best terminology I have available to me.) Rather, if God predicts something, in most cases He is bringing it to pass as it happens, not trying to guess whether it's going to happen. On the other hand, if God predicts something that does not happen in your view, God is NOT very, very smart, but rather a poor predictor, and guilty of violating His own standard.

I guess The Doctor was just wrong when he read Romans 9:11. :AMR1:

AMR
How am I to take that sentence? Are "Doctors" never wrong? As long as you can attach a lofty title to someone, they are then beyond question? That's a mighty interesting standard for one of the "reformed" faith. How exciting to hear such a thing from you on the 31st of October! I guess if The Pope says something, it must be true, yes?

And you tell me. If the good doctor was really "reading" Rom 9:11, as you suggest, and he included the words "before they were ever conceived", was he wrong or was he right? And if someone reading his article were to read those words from him and assume that he was quoting scripture, was he wrong or was he right?

Try it this way: If that person that read Lloyd-Jones' article were to then go out on the street and proclaim, "Romans 9:11 says, 'Before they were ever born, before they were ever conceived, God had chosen Jacob and not Esau.'", would that person (Doctor or no) be correct or incorrect in their handling of scripture?
 

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How am I to take that sentence? Are "Doctors" never wrong? As long as you can attach a lofty title to someone, they are then beyond question?
Your appeal to things that must actually exist in time before responsibility may be laid betrays an immaturity of the aspects of the being of God (theology proper). By your reasoning the motions of celestial objects must actually exist before God determined that they will be as they are. It simply ignores the omnipotence of God.

You also apparently do not know anything about MLJ, else you would have gotten the well-known The Doctor appellation accorded the man—all the while ignoring the plain words of Romans 9:11 I pointed out—in your process of attempting to wax eloquent and indignant.

You are not well read on the matter, Derf. You are plodding along making what you think are sound arguments as if none have been taken up and considered by those that have come before us.

I will stop now. There is just too much of a gap between our knowledge of these things that only invites needless repetition. I cannot devote the time and effort required to lay the proper foundation of these weighty matters for you. Tolle Lege. Then perhaps our discussions will be more fruitful.

AMR
 
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JudgeRightly

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"Well, I never!" Think about it and it will come to you. :AMR:

I'm sorry... What?

Your wooden literalism, when it suits you, would have God with hands, arms, actually having to visit Sodom to see what is happening, etc. :AMR1:

AMR

No, I completely agree, there are verses that can be taken too literally, and in doing so one can end up with all manner of odd and even blasphemous beliefs. But in order to find out how literal we must take a verse, or even if it should be taken literally, we need to know not only the context of where the phrase is in the verse, or where the verse is in the chapter, or chapter in book, but even how it fits within the story of the entire Bible.

Take for example the phrase "firstborn of the dead" (speaking of Jesus) in Colossians 1:18. Taken woodenly literally, ripped out of the context of the Bible, that verse can be used by those who consider the Bible as false to show that it's false, because before Christ rose from the dead, He raised several people from the dead. However, when one considers the context of the entire Bible, one can come to realize that even the ones whom Christ raised from the dead still died afterwards after living for a bit longer, but that Christ is truly the "firstborn of the dead" because He did not die a second time after being raised, nor will He.

AMR, would you agree that, taken out of context, certain verses gain more meaning than they should?
 
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