beloved57
Well-known member
The pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in his hand !
The pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in his hand !
Isa 53:10
10 Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in his hand.
Very many deny this truth, don't believe it. Yes they say they do, but they really don't, like Paul says 2 Tim 3:5
Having a form of godliness, but denying the power thereof: from such turn away.
Acknowledging Truth is godliness Titus 1:1
Paul, a servant of God, and an apostle of Jesus Christ, according to the faith of God's elect, and the acknowledging of the truth which is after godliness;
Now the word pleasure in our text in Isa 53:10 is the word chephets and means:
delight, pleasure
a) delight
b) desire, longing
c) the good pleasure
d) that in which one takes delight
It means will as in here Prov 21:1
The king's heart is in the hand of the Lord, as the rivers of water: he turneth it whithersoever he will.
The king’s heart is in Yahweh’s hand like the watercourses.
He turns it wherever he desires.
Now from scripture, what is the pleasure of the Lord, His Purpose that is in the Hand of Christ in this instance ?
Its for whatever aim or purpose the Lord had, That is God the Father, in His Son being put to grief, and His soul being made an Offering for sin.
The Father's Purpose for this was that those He was put to grief for, made an Offering for, was so that they might Live Spiritually through Him 1 Jn 4:9
9 In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that[purpose/in order that] we might live [spiritually] through him.
Now it can be said that all whom the Father purposed to Live Spiritually through His Son being made an Sin Offering in their behalf, if they do not all come to Live Spiritually, then the Pleasure of the Lord did not prosper in His Hand.
It was God's pleasure that for all whom Christ died, they should be saved and come into the knowledge of the Truth 1 Tim 2:4-6
4 Who will have all men to be saved[Live Spiritually], and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.
5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;
6 Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.
This giving Himself a ransom here, answers to the being put to grief and making His Soul an Offering for Sin here Isa 53:10
10 Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in his hand.
Now if all He gave Himself a ransom for or His soul was made an offering for sin in behalf of, if they are not all saved and come into the knowledge of the Truth, as it is clearly the Lord's[The Father] pleasure, will, desire to be done, then clearly the Pleasure of the Father did not prosper in His Hand . No, the issue was not successful, it did not prosper, it did not effect the desired results.
Now let it be understood, that anyone out of the whole World, that God desires to be saved and to come into the knowledge of the Truth, is not, the Fault must lie in the One whom God sent to get the Job done; And who might that be according to scripture ?
Lets see Jn 3:17
17 For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that [in order that] the world through him might be saved.
Now who did God send according to this scripture to save the World He wanted to be saved ? That His Work to do !
Cp Jn 3:17 with 1 Jn 4:9
9 In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him.
Now, is the World here that God wants to be saved through Christ the same people God wants to be saved in 1 Tim 2:4 ?
Lets look at another scripture who it is clearly told us who God expects to Save that which was Lost ! Lk 19:10
10 For the Son of man is come to seek and to save that which was lost.
Now does the Pleasure of the Lord prosper in the Son of man hands ? Is He successful in both seeking and saving that which was Lost ? Yes or No ?
One more Jn 6:39-40
39 And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.
40 And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day.
So please understand the gravity of claiming that Christ died to save all men without exception and Yet realizing all men without exception shall not be saved Matt 25:41; Matt 7:23, so in essence that is calling Christ a failure and saying that the pleasure of the Lord did not prosper in His Hand, which conclusion is against Christ !
The pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in his hand !
Isa 53:10
10 Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in his hand.
Very many deny this truth, don't believe it. Yes they say they do, but they really don't, like Paul says 2 Tim 3:5
Having a form of godliness, but denying the power thereof: from such turn away.
Acknowledging Truth is godliness Titus 1:1
Paul, a servant of God, and an apostle of Jesus Christ, according to the faith of God's elect, and the acknowledging of the truth which is after godliness;
Now the word pleasure in our text in Isa 53:10 is the word chephets and means:
delight, pleasure
a) delight
b) desire, longing
c) the good pleasure
d) that in which one takes delight
It means will as in here Prov 21:1
The king's heart is in the hand of the Lord, as the rivers of water: he turneth it whithersoever he will.
The king’s heart is in Yahweh’s hand like the watercourses.
He turns it wherever he desires.
Now from scripture, what is the pleasure of the Lord, His Purpose that is in the Hand of Christ in this instance ?
Its for whatever aim or purpose the Lord had, That is God the Father, in His Son being put to grief, and His soul being made an Offering for sin.
The Father's Purpose for this was that those He was put to grief for, made an Offering for, was so that they might Live Spiritually through Him 1 Jn 4:9
9 In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that[purpose/in order that] we might live [spiritually] through him.
Now it can be said that all whom the Father purposed to Live Spiritually through His Son being made an Sin Offering in their behalf, if they do not all come to Live Spiritually, then the Pleasure of the Lord did not prosper in His Hand.
It was God's pleasure that for all whom Christ died, they should be saved and come into the knowledge of the Truth 1 Tim 2:4-6
4 Who will have all men to be saved[Live Spiritually], and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.
5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;
6 Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.
This giving Himself a ransom here, answers to the being put to grief and making His Soul an Offering for Sin here Isa 53:10
10 Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in his hand.
Now if all He gave Himself a ransom for or His soul was made an offering for sin in behalf of, if they are not all saved and come into the knowledge of the Truth, as it is clearly the Lord's[The Father] pleasure, will, desire to be done, then clearly the Pleasure of the Father did not prosper in His Hand . No, the issue was not successful, it did not prosper, it did not effect the desired results.
Now let it be understood, that anyone out of the whole World, that God desires to be saved and to come into the knowledge of the Truth, is not, the Fault must lie in the One whom God sent to get the Job done; And who might that be according to scripture ?
Lets see Jn 3:17
17 For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that [in order that] the world through him might be saved.
Now who did God send according to this scripture to save the World He wanted to be saved ? That His Work to do !
Cp Jn 3:17 with 1 Jn 4:9
9 In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him.
Now, is the World here that God wants to be saved through Christ the same people God wants to be saved in 1 Tim 2:4 ?
Lets look at another scripture who it is clearly told us who God expects to Save that which was Lost ! Lk 19:10
10 For the Son of man is come to seek and to save that which was lost.
Now does the Pleasure of the Lord prosper in the Son of man hands ? Is He successful in both seeking and saving that which was Lost ? Yes or No ?
One more Jn 6:39-40
39 And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.
40 And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day.
So please understand the gravity of claiming that Christ died to save all men without exception and Yet realizing all men without exception shall not be saved Matt 25:41; Matt 7:23, so in essence that is calling Christ a failure and saying that the pleasure of the Lord did not prosper in His Hand, which conclusion is against Christ !