Free Will

freelight

Eclectic Theosophist
Free will given by 'God'......

Free will given by 'God'......

The case for free will -

A few points in the intro. vid -

1) 'Free will' does not imply 'maximal autonomy', since there are some factors that affect or influence our choices naturally, but this does not mean the mind itself is not making a genuine choice among more than 2 possible options, and could choose among those options FREELY, regardless of interior or exterior conditions or influences. Free will holds that the mind does have freedom within any given situational-context, no matter what influences MAY affect or influence one to choose one way or another. In this way, true individual and moral responsibility (response-ability) is preserved in all situations, and this also allows for true justice and mercy to be mediated/appropriated in all courts, on earth and in heaven. The scriptural teaching on 'free will' still holds, since such a principle is innate to the very laws of the universe, the soul, and God, who is their origin and Governor.

2) The higher cosmic view from more recent revelations such as the Urantia Book on this matter shared earlier here also support the truth of 'free will', and again, it is the only rightful, just and responsible principle regarding individual judgment, sovereignty of choice and the soul making its own responsible choice regarding its conditions and ultimate destiny.

3) Philosophers and scientists provide rational, logical and intuitional evidence for 'free will' as well :thumb:


 

beloved57

Well-known member
The carnal man has invented the lie, that man has a freewill. Its a lie because man by nature cant please God Rom 8:8

8 Those who are in the realm of the flesh cannot please God.

And until one is born anew, they are in the realm of the flesh !

So does the natural man in the flesh have a freewill to please God ?
 

oatmeal

Well-known member
The carnal man has invented the lie, that man has a freewill. Its a lie because man by nature cant please God Rom 8:8

8 Those who are in the realm of the flesh cannot please God.

And until one is born anew, they are in the realm of the flesh !

So does the natural man in the flesh have a freewill to please God ?

I please God.

How do I know that?

I know what Hebrews 11:6a "For without believing, it is impossible to please Him"

I choose to believe God, therefore I please God.
 

Truster

New member
I didn't know where else to put this, but in the time of Adam and Eve, when Eve was instructed to eat the Apple, did that mean the devil gave her the free will to do it? Or does it mean he was opening eves awareness to do things she wasn't instructed to do, like disobeying God (much like he did), and in a way exercising her free will?

All in all, who gave us free will, God who created us with that capacity , or the devil who let the early humans understand we had that capacity?

Sent from my HTC Desire 610 using Tapatalk

Neither angels nor man were given free will. Most of the angels were created immutable and didn't fall, whereas others were created mutable and so they fell. Those are not acts of free will they were the effects of immutability/mutability.

Adam and Eve were mutable and so at the first opportunity they fell. Both the fall of the angels and of Adam and Eve fell within the eternal decree and purpose.

Without the fall, there would have been no need for salvation and no need for a Saviour.
 

JudgeRightly

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Neither angels nor man were given free will. Most of the angels were created immutable and didn't fall, whereas others were created mutable and so they fell. Those are not acts of free will they were the effects of immutability/mutability.

Adam and Eve were mutable and so at the first opportunity they fell. Both the fall of the angels and of Adam and Eve fell within the eternal decree and purpose.

Without the fall, there would have been no need for salvation and no need for a Saviour.

Truster, could you go and read Psalm 54:6 and Psalm 119:108 for me?
 

Truster

New member
Truster, could you go and read Psalm 54:6 and Psalm 119:108 for me?

Actually the correct translation of the Hebrew is better understood as spontaneous or voluntary offering. Psalm 119:108

54:06 should read as; "I shall voluntarily sacrifice unto thee". This is of course a Messianic psalm and must be understood as such. This lines up with what the Eternal Son said, "... not My will, but Yours, be done." That is the voluntary sacrifice mentioned in Psalm 54:06

So, yes I can go and read the two psalms for you. I can also understand what I read. Thanks for directing me to them.
 

JudgeRightly

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Actually the correct translation of the Hebrew is better understood as spontaneous or voluntary offering. Psalm 119:108

54:06 should read as; "I shall voluntarily sacrifice unto thee". This is of course a Messianic psalm and must be understood as such. This lines up with what the Eternal Son said, "... not My will, but Yours, be done." That is the voluntary sacrifice mentioned in Psalm 54:06

So, yes I can go and read the two psalms for you. I can also understand what I read. Thanks for directing me to them.

https://www.biblegateway.com/verse/en/Psalm 54:06

A majority of the Bible versions have "freely sacrifice" or freewill offering. The only one that says "voluntary" is the New Living Translation. But it doesn't matter because the hebrew word written is "nadabah," which means both freewill offering and voluntarily, but the context shows that "freewill offering" is better, which is not possible if man does not have free will.

Even Psalm 119:108, "nidvot" (which has the same root as "nadabah") means donate. Again, there is no such thing as a donation if man does not have free will.
 

Truster

New member
https://www.biblegateway.com/verse/en/Psalm 54:06

A majority of the Bible versions have "freely sacrifice" or freewill offering. The only one that says "voluntary" is the New Living Translation. But it doesn't matter because the hebrew word written is "nadabah," which means both freewill offering and voluntarily, but the context shows that "freewill offering" is better, which is not possible if man does not have free will.

Even Psalm 119:108, "nidvot" (which has the same root as "nadabah") means donate. Again, there is no such thing as a donation if man does not have free will.

"seeing they shall see and not perceive and hearing they shall hear and not comprehend".
 

God's Truth

New member
"seeing they shall see and not perceive and hearing they shall hear and not comprehend".

There was a time when God hardened some of the Jews so that they could not see and hear.

There are also people who are hardened from God from being saved because sin has blinded them, the devil has blinded them.

And then there are those who do believe in God but are ensnared by the devil to preach false doctrines.

At least if you are going to use scriptures to try to teach, correct, rebuke, and train people---use the right scriptures.
 

God's Truth

New member
Neither angels nor man were given free will. Most of the angels were created immutable and didn't fall, whereas others were created mutable and so they fell. Those are not acts of free will they were the effects of immutability/mutability.

Adam and Eve were mutable and so at the first opportunity they fell. Both the fall of the angels and of Adam and Eve fell within the eternal decree and purpose.

Without the fall, there would have been no need for salvation and no need for a Saviour.

God made the plan for salvation to be through the body of Jesus before He made anything.

If God made some without the ability to chose, then He made some without the ability to truly love.

God wants us to love Him all on our own.
 

Truster

New member
God made the plan for salvation to be through the body of Jesus before He made anything.

If God made some without the ability to chose, then He made some without the ability to truly love.

God wants us to love Him all on our own.

You will hear the words, "depart from me, I never, ever knew you"....
 
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