musterion
Well-known member
You have nothing with which to bless anyone and no intention of doing so even if you had.
EVE AND THE SERPENT
- Thread starter Truster
- Start date
You have nothing with which to bless anyone and no intention of doing so even if you had.
I have the pre-evangelism with promise and the evangelism with power.
"I will bless those who bless you, and whoever curses you I will curse;"
Well, aren't you special.
I do not deserve the smallest of His tender mercies and yet for His Name sake He has bestowed me with riches above and beyond anything I could possibly have imagined or wished for.
To the praise of the glory of His grace.
The serpent tried Adam first but couldn't et him to budge, so he outflanked Eve. So in truth, it was Eve who sinned first.
lifeisgood
New member
Adam failed at his responsibilities in two ways.
1. Adam should have stopped his wife from eating, since he was there to observe exactly what she was about to eat (Genesis 3:6).
2. Instead of correcting the words of his wife (Genesis 3:17), he listened to her and ate while not being deceived (1 Timothy 2:14).
https://answersingenesis.org/sin/original-sin/who-sinned-first-adam-or-satan/
1. Adam should have stopped his wife from eating, since he was there to observe exactly what she was about to eat (Genesis 3:6).
2. Instead of correcting the words of his wife (Genesis 3:17), he listened to her and ate while not being deceived (1 Timothy 2:14).
https://answersingenesis.org/sin/original-sin/who-sinned-first-adam-or-satan/
lifeisgood
New member
Part of a answer I, lifeisgood, posted a long time ago in another thread, but I believe to be apropos:
God: ‘Adam, what did you do?’
Adam: “Well, this woman you gave me, she made me do it.” — Translation: God if you had not given to me this woman, I would never have failed you. So it is your fault that I did what I did.
God: ‘Eve, what did you do?
Eve: ‘The serpent beguiled me.’ — Translation: God if you had not created the serpent I would not have failed you. So it is your fault that I did what I did.
So in the end it was God’s fault that they chose to disregard the instructions given by God. The above obviously a summary of a much broader narrative, but in the end, neither Adam nor Eve, said, ‘Lord, Please forgive me.’ It was their free will to either accept or disregard the instructions of God. And they chose to disregard the instructions of God.
Has it changed since then? No!
The Word of God does not change. The INTERPRETATION of corrupt/fallen man changes, especially in these modern times, however, the word of God does not change.
So do not be a Prov. 26:4-5 person.
God: ‘Adam, what did you do?’
Adam: “Well, this woman you gave me, she made me do it.” — Translation: God if you had not given to me this woman, I would never have failed you. So it is your fault that I did what I did.
God: ‘Eve, what did you do?
Eve: ‘The serpent beguiled me.’ — Translation: God if you had not created the serpent I would not have failed you. So it is your fault that I did what I did.
So in the end it was God’s fault that they chose to disregard the instructions given by God. The above obviously a summary of a much broader narrative, but in the end, neither Adam nor Eve, said, ‘Lord, Please forgive me.’ It was their free will to either accept or disregard the instructions of God. And they chose to disregard the instructions of God.
Has it changed since then? No!
The Word of God does not change. The INTERPRETATION of corrupt/fallen man changes, especially in these modern times, however, the word of God does not change.
So do not be a Prov. 26:4-5 person.
You can't give a scripture for that lie.
Neither Adam nor Eve had free will.
Of the Messiah and the the Last Adam it is written:
Of Adam in his innocence it can be said: "Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of Elohim,"
Without the fall of the first Adam there would have been no need for the Last Adam.
Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of Elohim, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have staked and slain:
Of Adam in his innocence it can be said: "Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of Elohim,"
Without the fall of the first Adam there would have been no need for the Last Adam.
lifeisgood
New member
So, God ordered them not to eat of the fruit and you say that they had no option but to eat?
You seem to be clueless as to the reason for the fall. You can find the answer in Romans and Ephesians. I'm not sure you'll understand it when/if you find it, but it is there. You seen to find it easy to criticise things you don't understand. How did you get on with Schrödinger's equation...Rhetorical.
lifeisgood
New member
I must confess that I am.
As I said. Romans and Ephesians.
Epoisses
New member
Adam and Eve both had free-will prior to the fall hence the word sin not program.
Epoisses
New member
Heresy. Sin is a failure to meet the perfect standard of God not a programmed fault that was written inside like a computer. You basically charge God with planned obsolescence of the first man and woman because you can't differentiate between foreknowledge and predestination.
Because of your complete lack of understanding you accuse the Eternal Almighty of not being King/Sovereign over all creation. You continually maintain some things are by chance and take him by surprise. This means that something concerning you and your loved ones could happen and take him by surprise and that you or they could suffer because He has been remiss. "There is no peace unto the wicked".
Epoisses
New member
Once again chance cannot exist to an omniscient God with perfect foreknowledge. It's obvious you don't understand the difference between foreknowledge and predestination. They have the same meaning in your little mind because they have same meaning to all those of the Clavinist persuasion. Peter said he was elect (chosen) by the foreknowledge (all-knowing) of God 1Pet. 1:2. Not by a fiat declaration from the beginning of time. Go back to bible 101, Noob!
I know the difference between foreknowledge and predestination sufficiently to tell you that predestination is a mis-translation. The word predetermination correctly conveys what the original word proorizo meant and means.
Epoisses
New member
For whom he did foreknow (proginosko), he also did predestinate (proorizo) to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren Rom. 8:29
Are proginosko and proorizo the same words?