Come on, tetelestai, It's been at least 8 minutes, where is your proof?
It started to rain really hard, I had to close all of the windows in my house. Sorry, I was away from the computer when you posted your demand.
Come on, tetelestai, It's been at least 8 minutes, where is your proof?
you cannot prove your out of fellowship theory nor your filling of the Spirit theory either
That is your and Jerry's false assumption. The text does not come close to saying anything like that, and I proved it in the other thread. You can disagree with me, and be wrong, if you choose, but I have made NO "blunder".John is clearly stating that in order for the fellow believers to have fellowship with one another they need to “walk in the light”, which is the same fellowship that John has with God.
John is establishing in the first few verses (that you already agreed with) that John was a legitimate authority, having been a witness to the fact that Jesus had come in the flesh.
“That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon and our hands have handled, of the Word of life, and the life was manifested, and we have seen and bear witness and proclaim to you the eternal life, which was with the Father and was manifested to us”
He is showing them that they have the life. They are in fellowship with the Father, and therefore those to whom he is writing can fellowship with John.
“That which we have seen and heard declare we unto you, that ye also may have fellowship with us; and truly our fellowship is with the Father, and with his Son Jesus Christ.”
Paul tells us that light has no fellowship with darkness, and John is making certain that they know that John is someone with whom they can fellowship with, because his fellowship is with the Father. The Gnostics were in darkness, and were not in fellowship with the Father.
Why don't you quote from the other thread what I said, and prove where it is in error?
I concede the point that John is addressing Gentile believers
Hint: It is not the Christians he is writing to, therefore it must be...
Door, you seem to be flip flopping.
From the one on one thread, Door said:
From this thread Door said:
How about if you clarify your postion as to who John is addressing?
Good, Door!The letter is written to believers, and much of it is written about unbelievers.
By your logic a believer who dies with unconfessed sins, has unforgiven sin, and therefore must wind up in Hell, since no one gets into heaven even with a teeny bit of unforgiven sin.Jerry Shugart said:And then John tells the Christian just exactly what they must do in order to be cleansed and to be restored back to fellowship with the Lord Jesus:
"If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness" (1 Jn.1:9).
Here when Johnn uses the words "we" and "us" and "our" those words must refer to Christians. What John says here has nothing to do with salvation. As Christians we do not tell unbelievers that if they will confess their sins then the Lord will forgive those sins.
Instead, Christians understand that before a sinner can be saved he must first hear and believe the gospel. So 1 John 1:9 is not a message for unbelievers but instead it is for those who are already saved.
they also never told God that they would never do those things again. they didnt because they knew good and well that stuff would happen again. they didnt worry about trying to make sure it never happened again either. they told God that if those things displeased him, that he trusted God would take away the desire and need to do those things. he trusted that if God really wanted those things eliminated from his life, then God would work from within him to finally rid him of the character that made him do those things.
now godrulz, that person commits carnal acts on a pretty regular basis and yet still talks to God and trusts him. based on the information above is this person like the corinthians? or is this person a functional atheist as you like to coin that term? if that person died today, would they go to hell? this person trusted in Christ alone many years ago. is he a carnal christian? to me there is no carnal christians. to me this person is saved and is not carnal. what do you say?
No member of the Trinity can fellowship with a believer having sin in his life. Sin destroys our temporal fellowship with the Lord, but cannot jeopardize our eternal relationship with Him. Confessing or naming our known sins to God the Father, is the only means compatible with grace for restoration of fellowship with God and the filling of the Holy Spirit.
Unfortunately what you preach is in line with what thousands of christians and pastors believe around the world. it is utter blasphemy! you can take your two circles theory and shove it straight to hell where it belongs. you cannot prove your out of fellowship theory nor your filling of the Spirit theory either. as of right now you are on ignore . i will press view post when i am curious, otherwise, consider yourself ignored.
Nang, you can’t use Hebrews to teach Church Age doctrine.
At the time it was written, Hebrews applied to Jews who believed Christ was the Messiah before the Church Age doctrines were fully known and established in Acts 15.
However, now, Hebrews speaks directly to Hebrews who will be alive during the Tribulation.
You are OSAS? Does this mean one can be a Christian Satanist/Atheist and go to heaven based on a former profession that is no longer true?!
If they are not saved, their lives are evidence of this.
Obviously, then, the verse is a teaching describing the moment of salvation. And it is clearly not intended to mean the person being saved must enumerate all their sins; instead the person recognizes their current state of enmity towards God and is forgiven.