This is a very long post that contradicts your own assertions. Our discussion started based on this answer:First, you quote the Chalcedonian definition I carefully described in my original post as being associated with the WCF. It is not. The Chalcedonian item is a 1,500 year old statement describing the incarnate nature of Christ that is accepted by virtually all of Christendom (Catholic, Orthodox Greek, and Protestant). Indeed, no other such statement has survived virtually unchanged and accepted by Christendom, even through the split of the Eastern and Western churches in the eleventh century, and the Reformation. I would greatly appreciate any answer you have to my previous question about what your specific disagreements are with respect to the incarnate nature of Christ described therein.
Second, you appear to have overlooked the actual WCF section, VIII/vii, I quoted:
"Christ, in the work of mediation, acts according to both natures; by each nature doing that which is proper to itself; yet, by reason of the unity of the person, that which is proper to one nature is sometimes in scripture attributed to the person denominated by the other nature."
This is an important observation of the treatment given in the Scriptures of the incarnate Christ. As further explanation of this statement, the following is excerpted from the Incarnation entry on the from the Elwell Evangelical Dictionary of Theology, 2001, pg. 602:
“Because Jesus Christ is the God-man (one person who took human nature into union with his divine nature in the one divine person), the Scriptures can predicate of his person whatever can be predicated of either nature. In fact, the person of Christ may be designated in terms of one nature while what is predicated of him so designated is true by virtue of his union with the other nature (cf. Westminister Confession, VIII, vii). In other words:Hence, in Matthew 24:36 or Mark 13:32 we find Christ is designating Himself in the terms of his divine nature (“the Son”, “the Father”), but then He predicates (i.e., ‘affirms one thing of another’) His ignorance of the Second Coming is true in terms of His human nature, but not in terms of His divine nature. In other words, the God-man is shown in these verses self-consciously omniscient as God and consciously ignorant as man simultaneously.
1. The person, and not a nature, is the subject of the statement when what is predicated of Christ is true by virtue of all that belongs to his person as essentially divine and assumptively human; e.g., redeemer; prophet, priest, and king.
2. The person, and not a nature, is the subject of the statement when what is predicated of him, designated in terms of what he is as human, is true by virtue of his divine nature; e.g., in Romans 9:5 Christ is designated according to his human nature ("Christ according to the flesh"), while what is predicated of him is true because of his divine nature ("God over all, blessed forever"). The Scriptures do not confuse or intermingle the natures. It is the person of Christ who is always the subject of the scriptural assertions about him.
3. The person, and not a nature, is the subject of the statement, when what is predicated of him, designated in terms of what he is as divine, is true by virtue of his human nature; e.g., in I Corinthians 2:8 Christ is designated according to his divine nature ("the Lord of glory"), while what is predicated of him is true because of his human nature (man "crucified" him). Again, there is no confusion here of the divine and human natures of Christ.It is not the divine nature as such which is crucified; it is the divine person, because he is also human, who is crucified.” (emphasis mine)
Third, your conclusion drawn from your reading of the Chalcedonian description is incorrect. This is understandable, for when speaking of the Incarnation, some careful distinctions are made by theologians in words like person, nature, conscious, self-conscious. You conclude “what one nature knows the other nature must know”. That is incorrect and clear from a careful reading of the Chalcedonian description:
“to be acknowledged in two natures, inconfusedly, unchangeably, indivisibly, inseparably; the distinction of natures being by no means taken away by the union, but rather the property of each nature being preserved”
The word ‘nature’ as used when speaking of the Incarnation means a complex of attributes. It does not mean ‘person’. The divine attributes are not somehow passed to man and the human attributes are not transmitted to the divine. If you assume the two natures are compounded in some manner you fall into one of the six possible heresies of the Incarnation I described that motivated the creation of the Chalcedonian description.
For it was against the Eutychians that the Chalcedonian description confessed that in Christ were two natures without any confusion or change, each nature preserved and concurring in one person. And it was against the Nestorians that the description spoke throughout of one and the same Son and one person and one subsistence, not parted or divided into two persons and whose natures are in union without division and without separation. The description made it clear that a ‘person/hypostatis’ was a self-conscious substantive entity, while a ‘nature’ was a complex of attributes. That person/hypostatis was the divine Son of God. The human nature of Jesus possessed no hypostatis of its own, that is, unless the Son of God entered Mary’s womb, Jesus would not have existed. There was no “man” without this divine action. The description denies that the Son of God took into union with Himself a human person, instead the Chalcedonian description insists that He took into union with himself a full complex of human attributes (doctrine of anhypostasia). It also means that there was not two self-consciousnesses within Jesus. At the Incarnation the one Son remained self-consciously divine and consciously human as well.
The human and divine natures of Christ were essentially distinct as they were brought together, and though joined in the hypostatic union, a personal union, the two natures are not blended nor commingled. Moreover, the union thusly constituted is inseparable. As the Chalcedonian description implies, these natures are not converted into one another, that is, the divine into the human to make a divine man, or the human into the divine to make a human God. The two natures are also not compounded and blended together to no longer be distinguishable, to make a third that is different from the two. Lastly, the two natures are not confused in any manner, or so mixed together that the essential properties of both natures are indiscriminately existing in the theanthropic person.
Instead the Chalcedonian description teaches that true deity and real humanity are joined together in an inseparable personal union in the person of Christ incarnate. Christ is truly God and really man. But there is only one Christ and one Mediator between God and man. While there are two centers of consciousness, there is but one divine self-consciousness in the Incarnate God, Christ. The theanthropic person is one, but constitutes the two natures, complete, but not commingled.
AMR said:AMRA-BEQ16 - Ask Mr. Religion Responds:
No. Christ is God and cannot divest himself of any of His attributes. Thus, Christ did not divest Himself of knowledge or power. As I argued in AMRA-BEQ2, the attributes of God are identical with His being. For God to divest Himself of any of His attributes, He would not be the simpliciter God, but a composite God that is decomposable, divisible into parts. Yet God is pure actuality, thus having no potentiality, for that which has potential can be divided. If God could be divided, then God could be changed, as would be the case if He were able to divest Himself of some of His attributes. A divisible God is changeable, therefore not an immutable God. This is contrary to the Scriptural revelation of God.
1st you state that God cannot divest Himself of any of His attributes.
2nd, you state that God is not dividable because He would no longer be immutable.
When faced with Matthew 24:36, you have generated to long posts that say the two natures of Christ are dividable. Items 1, 2 and 3 above are used by you to show that there is a difference between person and nature. If, as you stated in your answer to BEQ16, Gods attributes are identical with His Being, how can there be a difference between nature and person?
Finally, you say that I miss-understand the Chalcedonian. Look at what it says, “to be acknowledged in two natures, inconfusedly, unchangeably, indivisibly, inseparably; the distinction of natures being by no means taken away by the union, but rather the property of each nature being preserved”. It states that two natures exist that are indivisible and inseparable. It seems quite clear from this statement that the two natures must be aware of each other. So when you say that Jesus as God knows the hour but Jesus the man does not, that requires that two natures are to some degree inseparable and divisible. The divine nature would have to hide from the human nature its knowledge of the hour of the end time. That sets up a contradiction with your answer to BEQ16 as Jesus hiding His divine knowledge from His human self requires Jesus to separate His two natures and give up some of His knowledge.
I look forward to your reply. God be with you.