@PopstheBuilder
Re: If you believe that the written translation of the OT that we have today is perfection and wholly utter truth, then why was there a need for another testament?
Your question does not actually relate to your stated assumption.
There is the "Old Testament" and "New Testament" and it seems your question refers to these because it speaks of "translation." If this is what you meant, there is nothing wrong with either Old or New Testament in this regard. The division between these two testaments is entirely artificial, and an arbitrary construct of men that distinguish between Hebrew and Greek.
However, if you meant "another testament" as in the testament that is made in Christ's blood, it has no relation to the perfection and accuracy of the Hebrew scripture. In that sense the testament is made by a testator, and there is death to cement that testament. The first testament of the blood of bulls and goats does not provide for the remission of sins and eternal life. The testament made in the blood of Christ does. See Matthew 26:28 KJV, Mark 14:24 KJV, Luke 22:20 KJV, 1 Cor 11:25 KJV, Hebrews 9:15 KJV.
Re: If the bible, in it's entirety is to be taken wholly literally, then why did the Christ teach only in parables?
Your question is derailed in the assumption. The bible is not meant to be taken wholly literally, because elements of parables are not to be taken literally.
Christ taught in parables so that the multitude would not understand, and see, and believe, and be healed. See Matthew 13:10 KJV, Luke 8:10-12 KJV.
Genesis, including its account of the creation of the heavens and the earth and mankind, is not presented as a parable.
Re: Yes it says 6 days, but it doesn't follow that it must be a literal 24 hour period 6 times. You attesting that all other instances in the OT are referring to a standard day is somewhat moot since the topic at hand is in reference to a time before man, or the sun even.
You're getting sidetracked on "24 hours." Regardless of the length of time, these days are defined as "morning and evening" - that is, a period of darkness followed by a period of light. If you want to suppose that the earth spun slightly faster then and this was 11 hour days and 11 hour nights, go ahead. But there's no way that you're going to get eons of time with the definition God already gave. That, and the same mornings and evenings are used for the definitions of day, today.
Re: *could you refer me to were Jesus teaches that in the beginning the was humans? I'm not familiar with it to be completely honest.
Matthew 19:4 KJV
(4) And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,
That sounds like what you were referencing.