Hi SaulToPaul, I was puzzled by that as well.
Along with auxiliary questions as to what is the church that is doing the preserving, per muzicman. The RCC ? JW ? The Reformation ? The Byzantine Orthodox ? The Syriac Orthodox ? Various combinations ?
Conceivably it could be related to his aggressive position for the Arian reading of John 1:18. This section on 2 Peter was an area I would have liked to examine from his posts (along with a few others) however like a lot of his writing it is "fuzzy". And I only have had the time and energy so far to emphasize two things:
1) John 1:18 - "only begotten Son" vs his Arian corruption
2) major blunder on Westcott-Hort where muzicman tried to distance himself from their text with a false assertion of radical textual changes towards the Byzantine after their text was published
Please feel free to discuss 2 Peter more, what you might think muzicman was claiming, one of the problems in this type of format is that with the limited number of posts it is easy for somebody to say something strange (like the section you mentioned) or totally erroneous (like the Westcott-Hort distancing fiasco) and then slip-slide around it until the discussion session is over.
At least on John 1:18, the situation is clear. themuzicman took an absurd position, falsely claiming all the translations had only-begotten-God, and he strangely attacked the historically-agreed and accepted and affirmed and loved "only begotten Son" phrasing as somehow non-scriptural .. and then moved on. There is not much more to say, except to puzzle if he even knows and understands he is aggressively defending an Arian/JW interpretation (that is in fact from only a very minority corruption). We can't expect him to say much more, since his foot, on John 1:18, is already firmly planted in his mouth. What is a puzzle is WHY somebody would take that verse and translation as an attack on the King James Bible, unless they were oriented towards the NWT and the Jehovah's Witnesses. It is not like there are many evangelicals who support "only-begotten-God" doctrinally (that is why even the modern versions fudge their translation away from a literal translation of the minority corruption that they have to work with because they are still textual clones of Westcott-Hort). And it is not like "only-begotten-God" really has anything like the historical and textual and early church writer support of the majority Received Text reading.
John 1:18 (KJV)
No man hath seen God at any time;
the only begotten Son,
which is in the bosom of the Father,
he hath declared him.
So the puzzle is why ?