Hilston said:
There is no outline for a meta-argument. A meta-argument, of necessity, must stand above such formulations.
Since all logical arguments are,
of necessity, reducible to such formulations, your “meta-argument” is,
of necessity, illogical. As I’ve asked before, what are we to make of such illogical proofs? Since when is “begging the question” (i.e., using logic to provide the logical basis for using logic) worse than “oxymoronic” (i.e., illogical logic)?
Hilston said:
The existence of God is proven in that, without Him, you cannot prove anything. The statement is not subject to such formulations as above.
That’s an arbitrary but fortunate claim, because the statement itself is completely illogical! Again, you need to read up on what “proof” means, especially if you’re tossing around other terms borrowed from formal logic.
Hilston said:
One of m_d's "proofs" was "1. God does not exist. If this is true, then the predication itself should be unintelligible.
Why is that?
This takes us back to your earlier assertion that “all proofs are statements.” First, that’s incorrect. Few if any non-trivial proofs are statements. They are sequential series of statements that proceed in an explicitly logical order. That’s why I keep asking for your chain of reasoning. Interesting that after much dancing around you are now taking the position that you don’t need to provide the logical basis for your proof claims.
Second, although you did observe that your statement did not mean that all statements are proofs, you never bothered to explain what it was that makes a given statement a proof, much less why your individual statements qualify as proofs.
Hilston said:
Mighty_duck's second statement was: 2. The non-existence of God is a neccessary precondition for Logic, induction, etc. For this to be true, magic would have to be real. No rational person believes that magic is real, and nothing in human experience warrants the belief in real magic. Therefore, m_d's statement is proven false.
Too bad you’ve tripped yourself up in your use of the term magic. To my surprise, you explicitly chose the “intentional attempt to produce illusions” concept of magic (call it MagicFake) rather than the “mysterious, seemingly inexplicable, supernatural power” concept of magic (call it MagicMaybe). [The fundamental difference between the two is that MagicFake is known to be false, it is impossible for something known to be false to be true, or for to know as true something one knows to be false; MagicMaybe, in contrast, is explicitly ambiguous regarding its true nature: it may be supernatural, it may not be, but in either case there is no intent to deceive implied.] However, your arguments effortlessly but unacceptably flipflop between the two: “For this to be true, magic would have to be real [
False for MagicFake, true for MagicMaybe ]. No rational person believes that magic is real [
True for MagicFake, false for MagicMaybe ]” Your proof falls apart because each step uses a different magic concept, but what applies to MagicFake does not logically apply to MagicMaybe in your arguments.
Hilston said:
If that were true, then I would be secretly believing magic were real, alongside mighty_duck, and undermining all the workings of logic and science and rendering human experience unintelligible.
Yeah, but then you’d be just like everyone else. How’s that different from what you’re claiming, other than the details of those secret beliefs?
Hilston said:
Originally Posted by Hilston:
I merely quoted Chilli's research. If it's unclear to you, don't blame me.
According to Chilli's definition, "Begging the question is a circular reasoning fallacy in which a circular argument is used within one Syllogism." For all of the charges of circularity, no one has been able to demonstrate question-begging in the biblical argument. There's been a lot of whining and moaning about it, but it doesn't exist. It's a collective delusion, reinforced by each other's emotion-laden complaints, fueled by the frustration of not being able to say anything compelling or coherent against it. Question-begging will not be found to exist in the biblical argument.
But now we know that the reason for that is because,
of necessity, there is no logical argument in the first place, don’t we? Logical fallacies can only exist in logical arguments, right? But I wonder if we could still find a bit of question-begging here. Your first argument
A above:
My claim C (actually, insert whichever one you want) is, of necessity, exempt from requiring logical justification. Justification for
A (not for
C!): …
Hilston said:
You can know if you're able to detect a circular argument within one syllogism (according to Chilli's excerpted definition).
Hey, Jim, do you even
know what a syllogism is? It’s a specifically structured logical argument, with a major premise, a minor premise, and a logical conclusion drawn from them. Here’s an example of a single syllogism (you’re gonna love this!):
All men are mortal; Socrates was a man; Socrates was mortal.
Let me break it down for you:
Major premise: All men are mortal
Minor premise: Socrates was a man
Logical conclusion: Socrates was mortal.
Relevance will become apparent in just a minute...
Hilston said:
Try to answer this question without question begging: "How do you know logic is trustworthy?" Feel free to re-phrase the question more precisely if you wish.
"There is no outline for a meta-argument. A meta-argument, of necessity, must stand above such formulations. The trustworthiness of logic is proven in that, without logic, you cannot prove anything. The statement is not subject to such formulations as above." (Perhaps we should remind our viewing audience that a "meta-argument" is merely an argument about argumentation itself)
Hilston said:
Originally Posted by mighty_duck
Please give an example of Circular reasoning that is not fallacious, and why it is not.
[Hilston's example:] All men are mortal; Socrates was a man; Socrates was mortal.
Um, Jim, this is not circular reasoning (There is no way to logically conclude that all men are mortal from the other two statements, nor that Socrates was a man from the other two statements). And if it were, then
by your own comments above you’ve just given us an example of question-begging!
By the way, you may be puzzled by the statements in parentheses above; that's where I explain the logical basis for my claim that your example is not one of circular reasoning. That's because I recognize that my claim, though logical, does not represent the chain of logic itself behind the claim. And even the parenthetical statement is not the complete chain; each statement could be expanded (e.g., all men might be mortal, and Socrates might be mortal, but if other organisms are also mortal, then without additional information Socrates could easily be one of those
other organisms, thus disproving that logical arrangement). I hope this will help you see the difference between a statement of a proof claim and the actual demonstration of said claim, more so you can understand our frustration at your posts than out of an expectation that you will start to demonstrate your claims. As you've made clear, you believe your meta-arguments are exempt from the messy requirements you impose on everyone else's meta-arguments. I do wonder if you could justify that without begging the question?...