Thanks for understanding! And no, I don't think it needs moved. This thread is so old and long it's covered just about everything under the sun! I figure, if it has something to do with theology it will fit just fine. Besides, Open Theism (or at least my particular flavor of it) is about the exact opposite of Calvinism and so if any part of it is correct, Calvinism pretty much can't be, so it fits okay.lee_merrill said:Hi Clete,
You mean you don't spend every single moment of your free time on TOL? And actually, this discussion really should be in the "Open Theism makes me hair stand on end" thread, not this one.
But here are the main points I would raise, and feel free to move this discussion if you wish…
I don't know that there is a specific meaning. It was an idiomatic expression common in Jesus' day. It probably had a range of meanings depending on the context but generally it simply was used to draw attention to what was being said. It could have been a way of saying something emphatically but it doesn't have to mean that.What specific meaning may we assign to "truly" in certain specific places, for example, in "you will deny me three times" (Mt. 26:34; Jn. 13:38), and in "another will gird you" in referring to Peter's death, which would glorify God (Jn. 21:18-19)?
To give a modern example, someone might ask a question to which you respond, "Absolutely!" When you say something like that, it could mean exactly that or it may not, it may simply be a really excited way of saying "yes" but doesn't actually mean "yes" in an absolute sense.
In any case, the word translated, "verily" or "truly" in our English bibles means just that "truly". That same word is translated "amen" in other places and it has the same meaning there. In fact, if you saw "The Passion of the Christ", "amen" was the very word they used when our bibles would read "Verily" or "Truly". It means that what I'm about to say can be trusted, that I am not lying, or making this up as I go. It means that I mean what I am saying and its important, so pay attention. In actual fact, coming out of the mouth of God, the word is something of a redundancy.
Certainly not! On the contrary, if God stopped all the evil it would be impossible to love God. I cannot love God if I cannot choose to love Him. If I CANNOT choose to rebel (do evil) and all there is left is obedience, then my obedience is meaningless because there was no alternative. Choice requires alternatives to choose from and love requires choice. If their is no possibility of evil, the is no possibility of love either.Does God have a share in primary responsibility, when he sees an evil deed about to be committed, and chooses not to stop it?
This will be a change from my previously stated position but no, I do not believe so.When God swears by himself that he has a given intent to bring some event to pass (Gen. 22:16-17; Ps. 89:35; Jer. 44:26), is it certain, even in view of Jer. 18?
I don't want to be seen as attempting to make light of prophecy, that is certainly not my intention. What I am doing is making God the Lord of prophecy not prophecy the lord of God.
Jer.18 says basically that IF there is GOOD AND RIGHTEOUS REASON, God will repent from His intended course of action and will not do that which He said that He intended to do. The only prophecies that would not fall under this principle are those were no such circumstance could possibly arise. It is possible that those prophecies in which we find God swearing by Himself could fall into this latter category but since I haven't spent the time to go through and study them all, I am no longer willing to make the claim that there is no such possible circumstance where God could justly change His mind. And actually, even if no such circumstance could possibly arise, they would still technically fit within the principle taught in Jer. 18 anyway it's just that God wouldn't change His mind because nothing would ever happened that would cause Him to do so. So any way you slice it, all prophecy could be said to fall under the principle taught in Jer. 18.
I do indeed depart from most Open Theists on this point, although I think that most of the Open Theist on TOL agree with me on this (but probably not all of them).Also I am somewhat concerned that you seem to be holding that God doesn't know all about the past, in order to say God went down to Sodom to find out the situation there more exactly. Is God not omnipresent? Doesn't the Open View hold that omniscience means God knows all that can be known? This gives up two major attributes of God's nature, here…
It is my position that God knows what He wants to know of that which is knowable and is able to find out anything He doesn't currently know if necessary (i.e. the details about Sodom). I believe that God can be anywhere that exists that He wants to be, but is not and cannot be forced to be somewhere He doesn't want to be, or to go where He doesn't want to go. And similarly, I believe that God can do anything that is doable that He wants to do, but is not and cannot be forced to do anything that He doesn't want to do.
Resting in Him,
Clete
:noway:This thing is already pretty long! :doh: :sigh:
Oh well, it's nice to get a fresh start anyway!
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