That has nothing to do with the fact the two were NOT called 'murderers'.
They
were, however, called "robbers" and were being put to death for their crime. Theft is not a capital crime, which means they were thieves AND one (or more) of the following: murderers (or attempted murderers), rapists (or attempted rapists), adulterers (or attempted adulterers).
Which one of those types of criminals were they most likely to be, given the wording that is used, the same wording that is used by none other than Jesus Himself to describe people who leave people for dead after ambushing and stealing from them?
Pounding the podium and repeating that they weren't called murderers means nothing when it's heavily implied that at the very least they were violent criminals who liked to steal, and in this case, they had done something worthy of the death penalty.
If they had been murderers then the Bible would have said so.
This is an argument from silence, a logical fallacy.
The one criminal admitted their punishment, the death penalty, was just, that they deserved what they were getting. Which means that, at the very least, theft was not the only crime they committed, because theft does not justify the death penalty.
Clete attacked me for saying Moses didn't kill someone in the same way that David had someone murdered, yet he said something completely untrue that the Bible does not say at all. He said one of the others being crucified was a "murderer". The Bible does not call him a murderer.
GT, would you at the very least be willing to admit that theft was not the only crime that the criminals on the crosses next to Jesus had committed?
You are going against me for saying what the Bible says. If the robbers would have been murderers
Robbers were violent criminals, often taking what they wanted by force, as described in the Parable of the Good Samaritan, often leaving people for dead.
If the person whom they attacked died as a result of their attack, they could justly be called murderers. And even if the person did not die, they would still be attempted murderers, and would justly receive the death penalty for doing what they did.
In other words, by calling them "robbers," it's is highly likely, even if not outright stated, that they were murderers, or attempted murderers, both crimes of which deserve the death penalty.
then the scripture would have called them murderers and not robbers.
Again, argument from silence.
Because God brings His message to us in our language
This is false.
Yes, God's word has been brought to us in English. But the Bible wasn't originally written in English. It was written in Hebrew, Greek, and small amounts of Aramaic.
The men God used to write the Bible didn't know what English was, let alone speak it.
and He doesn't say more understanding or deeper understanding comes from learning the language it was first written.
So what?
The fact is, people can and do gain deeper understanding by studying what was written in Hebrew and Greek, understanding which you completely refuse to acknowledge because you're scared it will destroy your position.
God tells us where understanding comes from and it isn't that way.
He tells us that "It is the glory of God to conceal a matter, But the glory of kings is to search out a matter." (Proverbs 25:2)
You, GT, have drawn a line in the sand where the english translation stops and the Hebrew and Greek begins, and have said, "I will search no further than this for what God has concealed.
And then you wonder why people call you out on what you believe, because you don't have the understanding that they do.
I have also noticed many people who have false beliefs
Because you say they're false?
will use Greek to try to defend themselves.
So?
Are you then asserting that everyone who uses the Hebrew and the Greek to defend their beliefs, their beliefs are thus false because of it?