Mr. Chair,
First, quit asking me the same question in both private and public areas. I already answered you in your private question. I am not fluent in Hebrew yet, but I am working on it. I know quite a bit already. Most of my Hebrew knowledge is what I've learned from the Siddur and Chumash.
So, your understanding of the verse is limited to the literal interpretation above? When I pray the Shema, I think that it means:
Hear O Israel, HaShem is our God, HaShem alone
Curiously, when I read the translation of the text in my Artscroll Siddur, it reads:
Hear, O Israel: Hashem is our God, Hashem, the One and Only.
I then wonder, why did they say "One and Only"? Does the word echad mean the same as the word yachid? Why do you think Maimonides used yachid to express the Shema? Does he present HaShem as an indivisible unity? The English translation of the Shema I copied from my Artscroll Siddur would seem to indicate that mainstream Judaism is sold on the "fact" that Hashem is the "One and Only". I would agree if they understood that His Oneness is not that simple.
Echad can mean a "composite unity". However, you seem to disagree that it can mean that. I posit that Rabbinic Judaism, out of a reaction to the Christian claim of the "Trinity", has gone too far and has changed the meaning of the Shema from that of the original. It seems to me that Maimonides had that in mind when he subsituted yachid for echad.
My desire is not to proclaim that you must believe that HaShem is a "composite unity" from the Shema, but that you accept that it is a possibility. I hope that you can conceed the fact that there is not one verse in the TaNaKh that clearly or directly states that HaShem is an "indivisible unity".
How are we doing so far?
Shalom,
brYce
I have not seen your private response to my question, so I apologize for asking it again.
And to the point:
I will not debate with you why the artscroll siddur chose to translate this way or that. It is quite likely that they went in the direction that they did to counter Christian missionaries.
Now for a fact. Maimonides did not substitute "yachid" for "echad". Nobody changed the wording of the Shema, and Maimonides, in his 13 principles, did not use the word "yachid" instead of "echad". Yachid is used in the popular song "Yigdal" which Maimonides did not write.
Maimonides 13 principles were actually written in Arabic, as were all of his philosophical works.
I repeat again. "Echad" is the Hebrew word for 1. It (and the feminine equivalent Achat) is the only word for one. It is constantly used in the Hebrew Bible to mean one, as in one man, one tree, one cow, one sheep, 1.
All the languages that I have any knowledge of have names for numbers, and the names for the numbers are just that, the names for the numbers. The only place where the number "1" means "composite unity" is in the minds of Christians who are twisting the plain facts to avoid the embarrassment that the Shema is to Trinitarians.
No. There is no possibility of echad meaning meaning anything other than 1. And Yachid is not the name of the number 1. It means "only" or "unique". You can't use it in counting. Echad is what you use in counting.
You have been sorely mislead here by well-meaning people.