So you only trust in a god that CANNOT hurt you rather in one who has promised not to do so. Is that what you are saying?
That's not really what I meant. I should have been more clear.
What I mean is that if the possibility can exist that God could be mistaken, what security do we have in the promises He has made? We can only trust those promises to the extent we can be certain of their fulfillment. What if an unknown variable makes the fulfillment of those promises untenable?
The same way we can trust the loving God who inspired the verse to be written.
I trust the loving God who inspired the verse because I believe that there
is no capacity in Him for evil. I believe He is only light and there is not darkness in Him. And I believe that when our sanctification is complete and we are conformed to His image, the same will be said of us.
Because we know why a prophecy might fail.
It is my opinion that you go too far in saying that prophecy 'fails.' In fact, the Bible is clear that a prophet is known to be authentic or false on the basis of whether what he prophesies comes to pass. If the prophecy fails, so does the prophet.
If I tell my son that I will respond with 'X' if he does 'A' and then he does 'B' and I respond 'Y', what I originally said did not fail and I was not mistaken. It is simply that the necessary trigger never occurred (likely as a result of my warning).
I do not, nor does anyone else I know of, believe that prophecies can simply fail for no reason or for any reason whatsoever. Jeremiah 18 explains explicitly why a prophecy might fail. A chapter, by the way, the destroys your entire theological worldview. A chapter that makes no sense whatsoever in a settle view world. A chapter that can only make sense if indeed prophesy are not pre-written history.
Jeremiah 18 does no damage to my theological framework. See my previous comments.
Let's suppose that in my example I told my son that if he threw a tantrum, he was going to get a spanking. My 'prophecy' to him is the vehicle by which I bring about my will. God does the same, albeit with more perfect and effectual result. This bears nothing on His foreknowledge and does not require Him to change His mind. It is simply an 'A' leads to 'X'/'B' leads to 'Y' scenario for which only one side of the equation was made known.
I do not fail to recognize it.
God does not exert nor does He have exhaustive control over ever event that occurs.
For clarification of my position, I'll interject that I believe that God does have exhaustive control over every event that occurs, but I do not believe that He chooses to exert that control in every case.
If He did, He would be unjust and it would be impossible to love Him or for Him to love anyone else. God risks rejection in order to make love possible.
I agree in the sense that if God was exhaustively deterministic, He'd necessarily be the author of sin. I don't believe that God exhaustively ordains all that occurs.
I also don't believe that God 'risks' rejection to make love possible, but that's a whole 'nother debate.
I do not state that God knows all that can be known. God knows all that He wants to know of that information which is knowable. No other position is either Biblical or rational.
I'm not trying to be overly argumentative, but I fail to see how it is rational to believe that an omniscient God (omniscience as defined by the OV) could simply choose not to know something that could be known. It is my opinion that anthropomorphic understanding of those passages which seem contrary is both more rationally and more biblically consistent than trying to shoehorn a reconciliation that requires God to be willfully ignorant.
Because God is where He wants to be and knows all that He wants to know.
Again, I fail to see the rationality of that statement.
Since God is present with His people (because He chooses to be) if He were to perchance witness one of them committing sin, can He then simply 'un-know' it? Can He literally force Himself to forget what He has just witnessed?
Even so, we may simply have to agree to disagree here. Perhaps we can find common ground though: Can we agree that God, should He desire it, has within Him the capacity and ability to be omnipresent?
Because the latter is irrational (i.e. it is self-contradictory), the former is not.
If one is irrational, so is the other. They pose the same argument.
You keep repeating this. I doubt you understand the implication you are making. You can only trust a god that is incapable of hurting you rather than one who has demonstrated His genuine love for you by His actions, not because He couldn't do otherwise but because He didn't want to do otherwise. That's what makes it love.
I'm not concerned about God hurting me. I'm concerned about ME hurting me. We have all proven that if the capacity for rebellion exists, we will actualize it.
God is not fickle, I am. You are. We all are.
Because we are not equally guilty of it - that's just the whole point!
And yet it is a point that is lost to all the debate among godly men and women that suggests otherwise. Equally godly men and women have struggled with these very same questions for years. Decades. Even centuries. If your theological framework were truly as unassailable as you state, we wouldn't be on page 20 something of the third thread of this debate.
As Dr. John Sanders put it, "The [open view] is an attempt to provide a more Biblically faithful, rationally coherent, and practically satisfying account of God and the divine-human relationship..." [emphasis added]
Which is essentially a meaningless statement. That's what EVERY theological framework attempts to do. And ATTEMPT is the key word in all of them.
I don't get all fussy about well thought out posts that actually make a cogent point. Its when people say stupid and blasphemous things that I "get all fussy", as you so eloquently put it.
Fair enough.