ARCHIVE: Open Theism part 3

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
"that which has been determined" is not the same as "forethought" or "prearrangement".
If someone determines that this or that is going to happen then that amounts to a prearrangement.
"foreknowledge" is a direct translation of pro-gnosis, which explains why the translators used it.
That is why I think that they were right when they used "foreknowledge."
The question then becomes whether the use of the word "prognosis" in the first century is consistent with our use of the word "foreknowledge" today, or whether we are interpreting the word in a manner inconsistant with the way it was used in other Greek manuscripts of the first century.
You still have not given a valid reason which demonstrates that my interpretation of 1 Peter 1:2 is in error. It is a fact that my interpretation of the verse is supported by what is said at Ephesians 1:4 and at 2 Thessalonians 2:13.
There is no lexical proof outside of the New Testament that proginosko or prognosis mean more than "to know beforehand."
That is exactly the meaning which I put on the words. God knew before the foundation of the world who would believe and who would not.
 

Lon

Well-known member
You used the word in your first attempt, but I thought you just made a spelling error. There is a difference between two things happening at the same time (coincidal) and two unrelated things that appear related (coincidental). To me it no longer matters whether the philosophers or the gnostics borrowed the attributes of a deistic abstract god from each other or whether they developed them in isolation. Somehow those attributes made it into classical theism, but they didn't get there from the Bible.
Huh, maybe we are both wrong. I can't get coincidal to come up in a dictionary search. Must either be spelling or slang? It appears we meant the same thing but over the wrong word. I acquiesce on this particular.

You are oversimplifying the argument and missing the nuances.
:plain:
God's commandments represent His desire for the behavior of men, but He does not force any man to keep His commandments except by means of the consequences of not keeping them. Violations of God's commandments cause effects based on natural laws (natural laws were also created by God). Violations of God's commandments also make man worth God's judgments. God's sovereignty is shown in His issuing laws and judgments, as these are the powers and responsibilities of a sovereign. We need to study the Word of God to find out what He desires for our behaviors and conform to those desires or accept the consequences for rebellion against Him.
Sounds like we agree. Back to respective paradigms...
God also makes contracts with men. Sometimes the contracts are unilateral contracts where only God is responsible for fulfilling the contract, other times men are also responsible for fulfilling part of the contracts or are liable for the consequences for failure to fulfill that are part of the contract (see blessings and curses in Deuteronomy). We need to study the Word of God to find out what contracts we are under and what our responsibilities are according to those contracts.
This too, we are in agreement upon but I'm concerned with suppositions/paradigms for understanding particular passages.

God also makes declarations of His future actions. Some of the declarations that God gives on His future actions are ones that He is unwilling to change (Ezekiel 14:13-14), others are ones that He desires to change if man repents (see Jonah). We need to study the Word of God to find out what His declarations are and whether He can be persuaded to show mercy. If He can be persuaded to show mercy, then we need to persuade Him.
I disagree here. He carries His own counsel over matters and knows much better than we what should be done. He does interact with us according to our
responses, but the resources are fully available before we ask. That is, God doesn't change, we reach to the resources He has available to us (we change).

You must have missed the posts in another thread where I compared God to a grandmaster weiqi player, since chess can be mastered by a computer but weiqi cannot.
:angel:
Interesting, never heard of it. Any fun?

Hilston's comments on the differences between prescriptive will and decretive will are an extreme example of what is wrong with classical theism.
Not sure how, in this short of a response, but thanks for taking the time.

It is primarily concerned with God's Word.



1 Timothy 2​


3For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour;​

4Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.​

Okay, I will disagree here but throw my name in as well: We continually need to be careful and acknowledge what agendas we bring to the scriptures.
I will assert, systems of theology tend to have agendas. What we hope for, is that what we discover will move us toward particular ideas, but I, along with you must continue to ask "what agendas/ideas/commitments am I bringing to my scripture reading today?" By implication, we surrender these and ask Him to mold and guide us. I think you are on page with me here and my disagreement is that 'yes' we shouldn't bring in our agendas, but we do and need to be observant of them (also addressed in the last response here).

Future revelation is the main reason that people cannot accept Open Theism.
It is easy to believe that God can say that "they shall look upon me whom they have pierced" because He has seen it from before creation or from outside time or because He determined everything that would ever happen in creation down to the quantum level so there can be no deviation that could cause His Word to fail.
It is harder to believe in a God that is able to make that kind of prediction and still have it come to pass in the midst of the turmoil caused by (and despite) the competing wills of men and the adversary who seeks to undermine God's plans.
It is harder. It is harder to read 'You will deny me three times" as anything other than prescience.

Open Theists have a hard time reading the phrases God uses in His Word through the classical theology lens because it makes God sound disingenuous at best.
Not to the majority of us, no. We too distinguish between covenants and promises. The reason these make sense to us is that we disagree on the particular ones. The OV sees many of them in contrast to our understanding.
I've had repeated conversations about this here here here and here.

Open Theists and classical theists both seek a reason to believe God's promises. Classical theists find comfort in believing that God has seen what will happen or that God orchestrates everything that happens.

Open Theists find comfort in believing that God's power is so great that He can orchestrate everything that happens, but that He refrains from using it in order to find the "pearls of great price" who are men that choose to love and obey Him despite the turmoil caused by the competing wills of men.
This of course, continues to support the idea of paradigm differences. The above illustrates these in my estimation. Look them both over and ascertain which is which here. Though asserted otherwise, what is the primary concern of the second (OV position)?
 

Zeke

Well-known member
Who can resist God will? evil wasn't a surprise, no more than adams sin! both came from the same will of God nothing can trump that, open theism is just a ripple in the pond compared to God knowlegde and power. Time is a barrier in your minds concerning God, and the retrictions you think that puts on God! but you just don't know one way or the other.
 

genuineoriginal

New member
Interesting, never heard of it. Any fun?
Go ("weiqi" in Chinese, "igo" in Japanese, "baduk" in Korean), is an ancient board game for two players that originated in China over 2000 years ago.
2010SummerChineseClasses_005.jpg
You should try it.
 
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godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
Who can resist God will? evil wasn't a surprise, no more than adams sin! both came from the same will of God nothing can trump that, open theism is just a ripple in the pond compared to God knowlegde and power. Time is a barrier in your minds concerning God, and the retrictions you think that puts on God! but you just don't know one way or the other.

Evil and sin are contrary to the will of God who is holy. Lk. 7:30; Matthew 23:37, that's who. God was grieved by sin, new of its possibility so was not ignorant of it. This does not mean a possibility is a certainty in reality or that God intended/desired sin/evil/fall (brought grief to God's tranquil relations and harm to His 'very good' creation).
 

DFT_Dave

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
The subject of this thread is "Open Theism."

And that is exactly the subject that I am discussing. People like Greg Boyd, who is recognized as a leading proponent of the Open View, says that no "individuals" are predestinated to salvation. The verses that I have quoted prove that he is absolutely wrong.

And you have said nothing that demonstrates that what I said is in error. In the following verse we can see that before the foundation of the world God chose some men to be saved:

"According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love" (Eph.1:4).

The "choosing" was before the foundation of the world and here Paul refers to that same choosing as being "from the beginning":

"But we are bound to give thanks alway to God for you, brethren beloved of the Lord, because God hath from the beginning chosen you to salvation through sanctification of the Spirit and belief of the truth" (2 Thess.2:13).

This has to be speaking of a choosing in regard to "individuals" because it is "individuals" who are saved and it is "individuals" who believe the truth.

Since God was able to know from the foundation of the world who would believe the truth then common sense dictates that He has a "foreknowledge" of these things. And that truth is stated here:

"Elect (chosen) according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ" (1 Pet.1:2).

The Christian is chosen and his being chosen is "in consequence of" God's foreknowledge.

Again, it is as a result of God's "foreknowledge" that He is able to determine beforehand ("before the foundation of the world") which INDIVIDUALS will believe and who will not. And those who do believe become Christians when they believe.

This directly contradicts the brand of Open Theology promoted by Greg Boyd.

You have been shown that the verses you use don't say that God is timeless and that the future exists. You can't answer my last two posts because they expose the stupidity of what you are saying. No matter what we say you keep sticking your head in the sand of your four verses that are not taken in context but used by you to form a context that is neither Biblical nor rational.

--Dave

ps. "You" in the plural means those who have believed in Christ and applies to all the Christians in all of the Churches through out time.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
You can't answer my last two posts because they expose the stupidity of what you are saying.
You want to change the subject and talk about anything and everything but thje subject of this thread. You have been unable to mount a valid defense of "Open Theology" and since its errors have been exposed you want to change the subject.
"You" in the plural means those who have believed in Christ and applies to all the Christians in all of the Churches through out time.
Let us look at the verse in question:

"But we are bound to give thanks alway to God for you, brethren beloved of the Lord, because God hath from the beginning chosen you to salvation through sanctification of the Spirit and belief of the truth" (2 Thess.2:13).

The verse is speaking of "salvation" being obtained through "belief in the truth."

Are you willing to argue that this verse is saying that men must believe the truth collectively in order for anyone to be saved? Are you willing to argue that this verse is speaking about a collective or corporate salvation and not an individual one?

Of course Paul uses the word "you" in the plural because he is addressing more than one person:

"Paul, and Silvanus, and Timotheus, unto the church of the Thessalonians in God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ" (2 Thess.1:1).
 

genuineoriginal

New member
This of course, continues to support the idea of paradigm differences. The above illustrates these in my estimation. Look them both over and ascertain which is which here. Though asserted otherwise, what is the primary concern of the second (OV position)?
Open Theists are primarily concerned with choosing the good part.

Luke 10
38Now it came to pass, as they went, that he entered into a certain village: and a certain woman named Martha received him into her house.
39And she had a sister called Mary, which also sat at Jesus' feet, and heard his word.
40But Martha was cumbered about much serving, and came to him, and said, Lord, dost thou not care that my sister hath left me to serve alone? bid her therefore that she help me.
41And Jesus answered and said unto her, Martha, Martha, thou art careful and troubled about many things:
42But one thing is needful: and Mary hath chosen that good part, which shall not be taken away from her.​

 

genuineoriginal

New member
Open Theists have a hard time reading the phrases God uses in His Word through the classical theology lens because it makes God sound disingenuous at best.
Not to the majority of us, no. We too distinguish between covenants and promises. The reason these make sense to us is that we disagree on the particular ones. The OV sees many of them in contrast to our understanding.
I've had repeated conversations about this here

1) There is a difference between prophecy and promise but the OV doesn't distinguish this and lumps them together because they deny prescience.

2) A promise/covenant can be conditional or unconditional, depending on how it is made. This is no different from our promises. "If you clean your room, we will go to the beach." What happens if they don't clean their room? The alternative implied implicitly in the promise: no beach.
"We are going out for ice cream." <-- no condition

3) Prophecy. God declares the future of Josiah 300 years before he is born and tells us exactly what will happen to ashera poles that haven't even appeared as yet. Ya know, in a sense, OV is in the same camp with double-pred Calvinists, because in the OV, God couldn't know the future, just purpose it. Therefore the OV's theology has God guilty of purposefully building ashera poles to a false god by extension or He'd not be so confident in His 'prediction.' Divine foreknowledge eliminates this problematic for the rest of us. He knows.

I claim reading scripture through a classical theology lens makes God sound disingenuous.
You claim that there is a difference between a conditional covenant and a prophecy.

I believe you previously used the "almanac from the future" argument to explain "divine foreknowledge", so we will create an example from that.

Ron Washington became manager for the Texas Rangers in the 2007 season. Assuming he had an "almanac from the future" which shows the results of the 2010 schedule, he makes the following "contract" (covenant) with the Texas Rangers:
"If the Texas Rangers win the 2010 World Series, then every member of the team in 2007, 2008, 2009, and 2010 will receive a bonus equal to the salary they received for those years."

The "almanac from the future" gave Ron Washington the "divine foreknowledge" that the San Francisco Giants win the 2010 World Series 4-1 against the Texas Rangers, and Ron Washington knew that before making the contract with them in 2007.

Putting aside any attempt to defend a theological position, what is your honest opinion about anyone making that kind of contract with that kind of foreknowledge?
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
How can a physician make a prognosis without seeing the future?
Are you saying that the meaning of a word in common use today is the same meaning of that word in the first century?

Is that the meaning which you think belongs in the following verse?:

"Elect according to the prognosis of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied" (1 Pet.1:2).

What is your point?
 

genuineoriginal

New member
Are you saying that the meaning of a word in common use today is the same meaning of that word in the first century?

What is your point?
Hippocrates
Among the works written by Hippocrates (ca. 460–ca. 375 B.C.) or in his milieu, the most popular in the Middle Ages were the Aphorisms and the Prognostic.
(source)
Some Roman physicians criticized Galen for his use of the prognosis in his treatment of Eudemus. This practice conflicted with the then-current standard of care, which relied upon divination and mysticism. Galen retaliated against his detractors by defending his own methods. Garcia-Ballester quotes Galen as saying: "In order to diagnose, one must observe and reason. This was the basis of his criticism of the doctors who proceeded alogos and askeptos." (source)
From the time of Hippocrates 375 years before Christ to Galen 100 years after Christ, the use of the word "prognosis" was used in the same manner and with the same meaning used today.

Classical theology applies a meaning to the use of the word in the New Testament that is not found in any of the Greek manuscripts of the time. The meaning of "prognosis" is a prediction based on observation and reasoning.

Is that the meaning which you think belongs in the following verse?:

"Elect according to the prognosis of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied" (1 Pet.1:2).


"Elect according to the [prediction based on observation and reasoning] of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied" (1 Pet.1:2).

Looks like a good fit.
 

DFT_Dave

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
You want to change the subject and talk about anything and everything but thje subject of this thread. You have been unable to mount a valid defense of "Open Theology" and since its errors have been exposed you want to change the subject.

Let us look at the verse in question:

"But we are bound to give thanks alway to God for you, brethren beloved of the Lord, because God hath from the beginning chosen you to salvation through sanctification of the Spirit and belief of the truth" (2 Thess.2:13).

The verse is speaking of "salvation" being obtained through "belief in the truth."

Are you willing to argue that this verse is saying that men must believe the truth collectively in order for anyone to be saved? Are you willing to argue that this verse is speaking about a collective or corporate salvation and not an individual one?

Of course Paul uses the word "you" in the plural because he is addressing more than one person:

"Paul, and Silvanus, and Timotheus, unto the church of the Thessalonians in God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ" (2 Thess.1:1).

My telling you that a "timeless" God cannot have "foreknowledge" when he sees everything all at once in the "eternal now" is not changing the subject.

My telling you that a "timeless" God seeing, in a pre-existing future, those becoming Christians and then chosing them to become Christians before he creates the world, before anyone actually exists, is irrational non-sense and unbiblical, is within the scope of this thread.

This next statement of yours makes no sense, and is not what we believe.

"Are you willing to argue that this verse is saying that men must believe the truth collectively in order for anyone to be saved?"​

This one is correct but not a logical connection to the one before it.

"Are you willing to argue that this verse is speaking about a collective or corporate salvation and not an individual one?"​

You're just not willing to face the foolishness of your own proposition which you are using to try and falsify open theism.

--Dave
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
I claim reading scripture through a classical theology lens makes God sound disingenuous.
Open Theists makes God out to be stupid. According to them God created man but He was surprised when they acted wickedly, as if He really didn't know the make-up of the creatures which He Himself created:

"And God saw that the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every imagination of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually. And it repented the LORD that he had made man on the earth, and it grieved him at his heart. And the LORD said, I will destroy man whom I have created from the face of the earth; both man, and beast, and the creeping thing, and the fowls of the air; for it repenteth me that I have made them" (Gen.1:5-7).

The Open Theists cannot see that what is said here can only be undersood figuratively, and the figure of speech is "Anthropopatheia": "Ascribing to God what belongs to human and rational beings, irrational creatures, or inanimate things" (The Companion Bible, Appendix #6: Figures of Speech).

According to the open Theists God was caught flat-footed by the behavior of the people which He Himself designed and created. We must also believe that God actually considered destroying men from the face of the earth even though that would mean that what He said earlier would never come to pass:

" And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel" (Gen.3:15).
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
My telling you that a "timeless" God cannot have "foreknowledge" when he sees everything all at once in the "eternal now" is not changing the subject.
We are examining the ideas of what is known as Open Theology. And I am using their own ideas in regard to God's relationship to "time" so you should have no objection.

But since you have no answers to what I said you attempt to change the subject and talk about something else.
My telling you that a "timeless" God seeing, in a pre-existing future, those becoming Christians and then chosing them to become Christians before he creates the world, before anyone actually exists, is irrational non-sense and unbiblical, is within the scope of this thread.
Yes, and it is equally irrational as a virgin birth.

And it is equally irrational to think that there can be a speeding up of time with God at the same time as a slowing down of time:

"But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day" (2 Pet.3:8).

Since mankind has always existed in "time" then we rationalize that there was never an existence where "time" did not exist even though the Scriptures tell us something different:

"Paul, a servant of God and an apostle of Jesus Christ to further the faith of God’s elect and their knowledge of the truth that leads to godliness—in the hope of eternal life, which God, who does not lie, promised before the beginning of time, and which now at his appointed season he has brought to light through the preaching entrusted to me by the command of God our Savior" (Titus 1:1-2).

Again, the following verse is speaking about God choosing "individuals" for salvation because it is only 'individuals" who believe the truth:

"But we are bound to give thanks alway to God for you, brethren beloved of the Lord, because God hath from the beginning chosen you to salvation through sanctification of the Spirit and belief of the truth" (2 Thess.2:13).

Since the "belief in the truth" speaks of "individuals" then the "salvation" also speaks of an "individual" salvation and not a "collective" salvation.

Not only that, but we see that the choosing was as a consequence of God's foreknowledge:

"Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ" (1 Pet.1:2).
 

genuineoriginal

New member
Open Theists makes God out to be stupid. According to them God created man but He was surprised when they acted wickedly, as if He really didn't know the make-up of the creatures which He Himself created:

"And God saw that the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every imagination of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually. And it repented the LORD that he had made man on the earth, and it grieved him at his heart. And the LORD said, I will destroy man whom I have created from the face of the earth; both man, and beast, and the creeping thing, and the fowls of the air; for it repenteth me that I have made them" (Gen.1:5-7).

The Open Theists cannot see that what is said here can only be undersood figuratively, and the figure of speech is "Anthropopatheia": "Ascribing to God what belongs to human and rational beings, irrational creatures, or inanimate things" (The Companion Bible, Appendix #6: Figures of Speech).

According to the open Theists God was caught flat-footed by the behavior of the people which He Himself designed and created. We must also believe that God actually considered destroying men from the face of the earth even though that would mean that what He said earlier would never come to pass:

" And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel" (Gen.3:15).

I will try to answer the question you asked after you answer the question I asked:
Ron Washington became manager for the Texas Rangers in the 2007 season. Assuming he had an "almanac from the future" which shows the results of the 2010 schedule, he makes the following "contract" (covenant) with the Texas Rangers:
"If the Texas Rangers win the 2010 World Series, then every member of the team in 2007, 2008, 2009, and 2010 will receive a bonus equal to the salary they received for those years."

The "almanac from the future" gave Ron Washington the "divine foreknowledge" that the San Francisco Giants win the 2010 World Series 4-1 against the Texas Rangers, and Ron Washington knew that before making the contract with them in 2007.

Putting aside any attempt to defend a theological position, what is your honest opinion about anyone making that kind of contract with that kind of foreknowledge?​
 
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