ARCHIVE: Open Theism part 2

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lee_merrill

New member
God remains omnipotent even if He voluntarily limits His free exercise of power or gives limited power to other creatures.
Um, that would not be having all power then--albeit by his own decision.

Philetus said:
It is a difference in how God exercises His power not in how much power He has.
I'm not sure what you mean here, could you quote some Open Theist authors to clarify this please? I do recall some who make out "omni-competent" to be some sort of substitute for "omnipotent." Alas, the two concepts are distinct, in my view.

"Only two alternatives are possible: God must either rule, or be ruled; sway, or, be swayed; accomplish his own will, or be thwarted by his creatures." (A W. Pink)

Philetus said:
God changing His mind isn't an OVERALL REVERSAL OF HIS PLAN!
Agreed, now I don't mean God's overall plan as in setting out to be merciful whenever possible, I mean his specific purpose in a given situation. Open Theists says "God changed his mind" means his overall plan changed in a given situation, I can quote you chapter and verse from discussions here.

I'm arguing that in the immediate God hasn't made up His mind anymore that any of us on such matters.
It seems God had an overall purpose with Moses, "It was not his will to destroy you," he had made up his mind, though he relented as well from judgment.

But you can't dismiss the fact that GOD intended to destroy it in 40 DAYS and didn't!
Or his announcement of impending judgment was perceived by him to be what would produce repentance. The only difficulty with adopting this conclusion is with those who say free will choices cannot be known, in which case I wonder how we read in Revelation that certain people will not repent under judgment, and that others will give glory to God.

Blessings,
Lee
 
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RobE

New member
So, demonstrate this for us. Do the test. Show us that you are able.

Let's assume that God has eternally and definitely known that you will use the word "superfluous" in your next post (which would fit #2 and #3.) Please maintain the truth of #2 and #3 for this example, and demonstrate your ability to do otherwise.​

Muz

Ok. I put the first part of your test in bold above. As for the second, how do you want it demonstrated? A video of me typing, a doctor's note saying I'm able to see, perhaps a report card from an English teacher. How do you propose that I prove I AM ABLE to perform the alternate task which is in opposition to my will(per assumption of your argument). Prove a negative, maybe? I got it.....

My dad is able to type a response without using the word "superfluous". - Sarah Mauldin

A character witness. Maybe as part of the test we might assume that God also foreknows that I am able to do otherwise, but won't.

Now answer my question:

#3) It is eternally known that God will show mercy at the judgement seat.
#4) Thus, God can only show mercy at the judgement seat.

Does this example illustrate the problem better? If there is a problem with these statements how do you reconcile them against your proof(3,4) and your insistence that there is nothing wrong with the logic within the proof?

Originally Posted by themuzicman
1) Libertarian free will requires that agent X in circumstance Y at time Z be able to do A or ~A. (Defintion of LFW)
2) Exhaustive, definite foreknowledge requires that all decisions be eternally known.
3) Thus it is eternally and definitely known that X will do A at time Z.
4) Thus, X can only do A at time Z, (2,3).
5) Thus, X cannot do ~A at time Z. (4)
6) Thus, X does not have LFW (5,1)
 

RobE

New member
Muz,

I was just wondering if this applies to Rob and your test as well.....

Just because God CAN change His mind, doesn't mean He WILL.-MUZ

I see you are starting to see why I used this statement as a proof since the beginning. I'm enjoying the discussion.
 

themuzicman

Well-known member
Ok. I put the first part of your test in bold above. As for the second, how do you want it demonstrated? A video of me typing, a doctor's note saying I'm able to see, perhaps a report card from an English teacher. How do you propose that I prove I AM ABLE to perform the alternate task which is in opposition to my will(per assumption of your argument). Prove a negative, maybe?

"I am able" isn't negative. How could I be asking you to prove one?

You're saying that you're able to do ~A when A is definitely foreknown. I'm ask you to put your keyboard where your mouth is. Demonstrate for how how you keep #2 and #3 truth, but do ~A.

I got it.....

My dad is able to type a response without using the word "superfluous". - Sarah Mauldin

A character witness. Maybe as part of the test we might assume that God also foreknows that I am able to do otherwise, but won't.

Gee, when you hit "submit reply" everyone would see the evidence.

Now answer my question:

After you dodged mine?

#3) It is eternally known that God will show mercy at the judgement seat.
#4) Thus, God can only show mercy at the judgement seat.

Does this example illustrate the problem better? If there is a problem with these statements how do you reconcile them against your proof(3,4) and your insistence that there is nothing wrong with the logic within the proof?

No, it does not. This is a category error... (I thinik that's what it's called.) You're referring to what will happen to some, and saying that it must happen to all.

Let's fix it to show how this is a strawman:

#3) It is eternally known that God will show mercy to some at the judgement seat.
#4) Thus, God can only show mercy at the judgement seat.​

It is NOT analogous to my proof, because I'm referring to a specific instance (X at Z doing A), and not a general category (God offers mercy to some). Your example is another straw man. (What a shock.)

Unless, of course, you wish to demonstrate that X at time Z can do both A and ~A. :dunce:

In both #3 and #4, I'm referring to the same specific instance, and not making a generalization into an absolute, as you have done.


I was going to say that I am surprised that you can't see something that stone simple, but that would be a lie.


BTW, you failed the test. Maybe you should try again.

Muz
 

Philetus

New member
Um, that would not be having all power then--albeit by his own decision.


I'm not sure what you mean here, could you quote some Open Theist authors to clarify this please? I do recall some who make out "omni-competent" to be some sort of substitute for "omnipotent." Alas, the two concepts are distinct, in my view.

"Only two alternatives are possible: God must either rule, or be ruled; sway, or, be swayed; accomplish his own will, or be thwarted by his creatures." (A W. Pink)


Agreed, now I don't mean God's overall plan as in setting out to be merciful whenever possible, I mean his specific purpose in a given situation. Open Theists says "God changed his mind" means his overall plan changed in a given situation, I can quote you chapter and verse from discussions here.


It seems God had an overall purpose with Moses, "It was not his will to destroy you," he had made up his mind, though he relented as well from judgment.


Or his announcement of impending judgment was perceived by him to be what would produce repentance. The only difficulty with adopting this conclusion is with those who say free will choices cannot be known, in which case I wonder how we read in Revelation that certain people will not repent under judgment, and that others will give glory to God.

Blessings,
Lee

I'm convinced we continue to talk past and around one another. The harder I try to put it in terms I think you can understand the more confusing your responses. Sorry, I give up.

Having and using it is not the same thing. Surprisingly, when it comes to power, God doesn't lose it if He doesn't use it.

Your view is narrow.

Pink stinks.

You can miss quote anything.

Read Revelation anyway you want.

I need a break.
Philetus
 

RobE

New member
"I am able" isn't negative. How could I be asking you to prove one?

What's it called when you ask someone to eat their cereal and not eat it at the same time? How does anyone to ~(not)something?

You're saying that you're able to do ~A when A is definitely foreknown. I'm ask you to put your keyboard where your mouth is. Demonstrate for how how you keep #2 and #3 truth, but do ~A.

Which I have by showing you the difference between what I will do and what I can do just as you previously pointed out to Lee about God's ability to do/do otherwise in no way forces him to do both. I have proven my ability to do otherwise through testimony from my daughter, unless you think she's lying. I figured you understood the circular rock lifting from the moment you hit the submit button. Could it be that you don't? I doubt it. You probably think it's my circular rock lifting so I'll clarify what I think is wrong with your test.

Do you see the part where you say 'A is definitely foreknown'? - This part is speaking to what I'm willing and able to do. Don't believe this:

3) Thus it is eternally and definitely known that X WILL do A at time Z.​

I draw the the conclusion that I am able to do it because I will only do what I'm able to do(in opposition to being unwilling to do everything I'm able to do; and, of course unable to do what I'm willing to do). The bottom line is to accomplish anything including A, I must be willing and able; not just one or the other.

Do you see the part where you say 'You're saying that you're able to do ~A'? - This part is speaking to what I'm able but not willing to do which means it won't be enacted because it requires both will and ability to become real.

Gee, when you hit "submit reply" everyone would see the evidence.

How so? When I hit submit reply then only what I will do appears, not what I'm capable of doing. When you make a post is that it? Is it finished? If that were true you would have only ever made one post. Apparently your abilities range beyond a single post.

After you dodged mine?

I haven't dodged your reply. You have a circular argument which doesn't address the problem of the relationship between will and ability. The confusion is yours, not mine.

No, it does not. This is a category error... (I think that's what it's called.) You're referring to what will happen to some, and saying that it must happen to all.

No. I'm simply replacing your variables with words:

2) Exhaustive, definite foreknowledge requires that all decisions be eternally known.
3) Thus it is eternally and definitely known that X will do A at time Z.
4) Thus, X can only do A at time Z, (2,3).

X=God,
A=Show Mercy, fish, sing, throw, paddle, hunt, eat, etc....(pick one, your choice)
Z=the judgement, 4 p.m., tommorrow, next month, etc.....(pick one, your choice)

#3)It is eternally known that X(God) will A(show mercy) at time Z(the judgement).
#4)Thus, X(God) can only A(show mercy) at time Z(the judgement.)​

Let's fix it to show how this is a strawman:

#3) It is eternally known that God will show mercy to some at the judgement seat.
#4) Thus, God can only show mercy to some at the judgement seat.​

It is NOT analogous to my proof, because I'm referring to a specific instance (X at Z doing A), and not a general category (God offers mercy to some). Your example is another straw man. (What a shock.)

Wow! I added 'to some' so that your correction would be consistent. Why did you insert 'to some' into my statement. Did it make it more relevant to you? Did it fix your problem or did you have to remove the 'to some' in #4 so that it would make sense to what you want to be true? I only used this example because you foreknow that God is capable of doing other things besides showing mercy(to some if your prefer) at the judgement seat; but your proof, if valid would, preclude Him from doing so. The only way to test the proof is replace the variables. I'll try a different combination:

#3) Thus it is eternally and definitely known that God will fish next month.
#4)Thus, (God) can only (fish)(next month).

Unless, of course, you wish to demonstrate that X at time Z can do both A and ~A. :dunce:

Which is apparently what your test is meant to ask me to do. :dunce: , but doesn't. I answered the 'test' in its stated form and you are asking me to answer this question instead. The answer is that A, and ~A are both valid alternatives at time Z even though it is foreknown that you will do A. They can't be performed through your will at the same time even if they are both valid alternatives. For example I can't walk and not walk simultaneously. I can, however, walk or not walk as a given ability. What I will do is foreknown/foreseen from eternity and has no bearing on what I can do.

BTW, you failed the test. Maybe you should try again.

Perhaps you should get your head out of your test(which I answered whether you understand the answer or not) and make some substitutions into your own proof and find a statement that makes sense with it. It's probably that simple. Find the words which fit your statements 3 and 4. Pick any combination. All I ask is that you keep x=God so that it amplifies the absurdity for your benefit.

Thanks,
Rob

p.s. If I really didn't answer your 'test' the first time, I apologize. It's true, I just might be that dense.:hammer: ; so help me out will ya. I'll try to shorten the responses. I usually make my replies in 2-5 minute intervals at work, but I was home this time. Sorry.
 

themuzicman

Well-known member
What's it called when you ask someone to eat their cereal and not eat it at the same time? How does anyone to ~(not)something?

LOL.. Go get a book on logic. Proving a negative is demonstrating that something is never true. I could ask you to prove that no one has ever circled the world by running. Well, that's impossible, because you cannot account for the lives of every person. The onus is on the person who makes the assertion to prove that someone has.


However, in this case, I've made a logically sound basis for saying that one is not able to do something, and you've said that's not true, that one is able. Thus, the onus is on you to demonstrate that my logical assertion is incorrect.

What YOU'VE discovered is a valid logical conclusion which is the basis for #4. You are correct that that someone can't do something and not do it. That's why #4 is the logical conclusion of #3! (And also why all your examples below are invalid.)

Which I have by showing you the difference between what I will do and what I can do just as you previously pointed out to Lee about God's ability to do/do otherwise in no way forces him to do both. I have proven my ability to do otherwise through testimony from my daughter, unless you think she's lying. I figured you understood the circular rock lifting from the moment you hit the submit button. Could it be that you don't? I doubt it. You probably think it's my circular rock lifting so I'll clarify what I think is wrong with your test.

You're trying to argue from modal logic, and I've not asserted necessity. Get out of your pigeon hole and pay attention.

Do you see the part where you say 'A is definitely foreknown'? - This part is speaking to what I'm willing and able to do.

Incorrect. This speaks of what God eternally and definitely knows. There is nothing in #2 about your ability or willingness.

Don't believe this:

3) Thus it is eternally and definitely known that X WILL do A at time Z.​

That's a fine assertion, but again, it's yours, not mine. It's irrelevant to the conversation.

I draw the the conclusion that I am able to do it because I will only do what I'm able to do(in opposition to being unwilling to do everything I'm able to do; and, of course unable to do what I'm willing to do). The bottom line is to accomplish anything including A, I must be willing and able; not just one or the other.

I'm unconcerned with what you are willing to do.

Do you see the part where you say 'You're saying that you're able to do ~A'? - This part is speaking to what I'm able but not willing to do which means it won't be enacted because it requires both will and ability to become real.

And I'm concerned with ability, not willingness.

How so? When I hit submit reply then only what I will do appears, not what I'm capable of doing. When you make a post is that it? Is it finished? If that were true you would have only ever made one post. Apparently your abilities range beyond a single post.

However, I can only hit 'submit reply' for a given post at one given time. That's why there is "at time Z" in there.

And, again, if you're capable, you can do it. Show us! Do it multiple times, if you wish.

I haven't dodged your reply. You have a circular argument which doesn't address the problem of the relationship between will and ability. The confusion is yours, not mine.

LOL.. Is this all you have? Throwing out logical terms that you apparently have no clue what they mean, and thinking that they're valid?

You've not shown "prove a negative" or "circular logic."

No. I'm simply replacing your variables with words:

And changing the categories. I'm speaking of specific decisions, and you're speaking of generalities. You could do this to any valid proof.

X=God,
A=Show Mercy, fish, sing, throw, paddle, hunt, eat, etc....(pick one, your choice)
Z=the judgement, 4 p.m., tommorrow, next month, etc.....(pick one, your choice)

#3)It is eternally known that X(God) will A(show mercy) at time Z(the judgement).
#4)Thus, X(God) can only A(show mercy) at time Z(the judgement.)​

If you're not intelligent enough to grasp why this is invalid, then there's no point in discussing further with you. I've already told you why this is invalid.

Wow! I added 'to some' so that your correction would be consistent. Why did you insert 'to some' into my statement. Did it make it more relevant to you? Did it fix your problem or did you have to remove the 'to some' in #4 so that it would make sense to what you want to be true? I only used this example because you foreknow that God is capable of doing other things besides showing mercy(to some if your prefer) at the judgement seat; but your proof, if valid would, preclude Him from doing so. The only way to test the proof is replace the variables. I'll try a different combination:

#3) Thus it is eternally and definitely known that God will fish next month.
#4)Thus, (God) can only (fish)(next month).

This is called "equivocation." It's playing with words. Let's fix it:

#3 It is eternally and definitely known that God will fish at 6pm on the 15th, next month
#4 Thus, God can only Fish at 6pm on the 15th next month.

And that would be accurate.

You see, the problem you have is that you don't realize the importance of "at time Z" in my proof. And, because of this, you throw out an even that happens in a large time frame, and then say that must happen all the time in that frame, and that's not valid.

Which is apparently what your test is meant to ask me to do. :dunce: , but doesn't. I answered the 'test' in its stated form and you are asking me to answer this question instead. The answer is that A, and ~A are both valid alternatives at time Z even though it is foreknown that you will do A.

Proof? Or are we just to take your word for that? I have a syllogism that demonstrates otherwise.

They can't be performed through your will at the same time even if they are both valid alternatives. For example I can't walk and not walk simultaneously. I can, however, walk or not walk as a given ability. What I will do is foreknown/foreseen from eternity and has no bearing on what I can do.

Again, you've shown no logical basis for this claim. You just make this statement and expect us to accept it.

Step up, logic master. Show us your logical syllogism.

Perhaps you should get your head out of your test(which I answered whether you understand the answer or not) and make some substitutions into your own proof and find a statement that makes sense with it. It's probably that simple. Find the words which fit your statements 3 and 4. Pick any combination. All I ask is that you keep x=God so that it amplifies the absurdity for your benefit.

LOL... The fact that you can't see how invalid this only demonstrates your inability to grasp it.

p.s. If I really didn't answer your 'test' the first time, I apologize. It's true, I just might be that dense.:hammer: ; so help me out will ya. I'll try to shorten the responses. I usually make my replies in 2-5 minute intervals at work, but I was home this time. Sorry.

Tell you what.. Make it it's own post, and title it "I passed the test" and just put in that post your demonstration that assumes God foreknows that you will use the word "superfluous" in that post, and then you do otherwise, while maintaining the truth of what God definitely knew.

Muz
 

RobE

New member
What YOU'VE discovered is a valid logical conclusion which is the basis for #4. You are correct that that someone can't do something and not do it. That's why #4 is the logical conclusion of #3! (And also why all your examples below are invalid.)

No it's the logical conclusion of #5. If the #4 necessary condition is correct.

You're trying to argue from modal logic, and I've not asserted necessity. Get out of your pigeon hole and pay attention.

Yes you have unless you remove "can only do" A in #4

Incorrect. This speaks of what God eternally and definitely knows. There is nothing in #2 about your ability or willingness.

You're right I'm was speaking of #3.

I'm unconcerned with what you are willing to do.

Then why is it in #3 of your proof?

And I'm concerned with ability, not willingness.

Then why is it addressed in #3 of your proof?

LOL.. Is this all you have? Throwing out logical terms that you apparently have no clue what they mean, and thinking that they're valid?

Is the need for your proof to be true overwhelming your ability to reason?

This is called "equivocation." It's playing with words. Let's fix it:

#3 It is eternally and definitely known that God will fish at 6pm on the 15th, next month
#4 Thus, God can only Fish at 6pm on the 15th next month.

And that would be accurate.

This is no better. The fact that God WILL fish at 6pm on the 15th of next month, doesn't mean that He CAN ONLY fish at 6pm on the 15th of next month. That all of his abilities except fishing are somehow suspended at 6pm on the 15th of next month. My argument is the same argument you applied to Lee and it's valid.

You see, the problem you have is that you don't realize the importance of "at time Z" in my proof. And, because of this, you throw out an even that happens in a large time frame, and then say that must happen all the time in that frame, and that's not valid.

And the problem with you is you have preconceived notions about your proof which doesn't allow you to see the flaws within it. The length of the time frame doesn't matter to my argument. The point is that God's ability is never suspended at any time(which we know is true); but your proof would require it because of the invalid necessary condition 'ONLY' in #4. Remove the necessary condition and the proof falls flat. Recognize the necessary condition and your feelings about your position falls flat.

2) Exhaustive, definite foreknowledge requires that all decisions be eternally known.
3) Thus it is eternally and definitely known that X will do A at time Z.
4) Thus, X can only do A at time Z, (2,3).
5) Thus, X cannot do ~A at time Z. (4)​

Your test is asking me to invalidate the truth between #4 and #5. You are saying do something and not something at the same time. It doesn't have any bearing on #3 which speaks to what I'm willing to do. The relationship between #4 and #5 is valid and I've never said otherwise.
 

themuzicman

Well-known member
No it's the logical conclusion of #5. If the #4 necessary condition is correct.

#4 isn't modally necessary.

Yes you have unless you remove "can only do" A in #4

Sorry, but that's not a modally necessary statement.

You're right I'm was speaking of #3.

"Will" in #3 is a verb, not a noun. This is a quirk in the English language. You're referring to your "will", which is what you choose to do. That's not what #3 says. #3 simply states what is going to occur. I can say "You will go to the store", but I'm not referring to what your will is in the matter. I'm simply making a statement of fact about the future.

Is the need for your proof to be true overwhelming your ability to reason?

No, it's a demonstration of it.

This is no better. The fact that God WILL fish at 6pm on the 15th of next month, doesn't mean that He CAN ONLY fish at 6pm on the 15th of next month. That all of his abilities except fishing are somehow suspended at 6pm on the 15th of next month. My argument is the same argument you applied to Lee and it's valid.

OK, while maintaining the truth that God definitely knows that He will fish at 6pm on the 15th of next month, demonstrate Him doing otherwise. You see, definite knowledge of a future decision or action requires some kind of prior determination of that event. It could be that God declared that He will fish at 6pm on the 15th of next month, and since God doesn't violate His declarations, He cannot do otherwise.

The problem you're having is that you want to impose eternal necessity where it's not warranted.

I go back to my car example. At one point, you had two cars to choose from, and you were required to buy one of the two. But when I bought one, and you had to buy one of the two from the dealer, my choice made it so that you can only purchase the other car. Was that modally necessary? No. Another option was possible at one time.

But at this point are you only able to choose the remaining car, and unable to choose the car I bought? YES.

Thus, we have, at the moment of choosing, only the ability to choose one option while maintaining the truth of exhaustive definite foreknowledge, even if that option wasn't necessary. Something prior to that made the individual only able to choose the one option.

And the problem with you is you have preconceived notions about your proof which doesn't allow you to see the flaws within it. The length of the time frame doesn't matter to my argument. The point is that God's ability is never suspended at any time(which we know is true);

Who said anything about suspending abilities? Is that the only thing that can limit what one is actually able to do?

Example:

God declared that He will NEVER AGAIN flood the entire earth to kill all of mankind in Genesis.

Is God now able to flood the entire earth, given that He has declared that He will never do it again?

Or is God limited by His covenant, such that He cannot?

but your proof would require it because of the invalid necessary condition 'ONLY' in #4. Remove the necessary condition and the proof falls flat. Recognize the necessary condition and your feelings about your position falls flat.

Except that I've already demonstrated how "only" can be used in a modally non-necessary way. Twice, now.

2) Exhaustive, definite foreknowledge requires that all decisions be eternally known.
3) Thus it is eternally and definitely known that X will do A at time Z.
4) Thus, X can only do A at time Z, (2,3).
5) Thus, X cannot do ~A at time Z. (4)​

Your test is asking me to invalidate the truth between #4 and #5. You are saying do something and not something at the same time.

Exactly. Funny how you identify the problem with your position, and then try to make it my problem.

It doesn't have any bearing on #3 which speaks to what I'm willing to do. The relationship between #4 and #5 is valid and I've never said otherwise.

See above on "willing." That's an equivocation.

Muz
 

Philetus

New member
:nono:





:wave2:

Hi Nang,

Pink:
"Only two alternatives are possible:
God must either rule, or be ruled;
Sway or be swayed;
Accomplish his own will, or be thwarted by his creatures.”


Or God can allow rebellious creatures to destroy themselves.

God will not be ruled by His creatures, but He can be ignored to one's own detriment.
God will not be coerced, but God can be swayed, “and the Lord listened to me at this time also.” (Lee's own quote.)
God does accomplish His own will AND is often thwarted (let down, dissatisfied, upset and/or saddened) by His creatures. Some call it sin and sin pays a wage.
:wave:

Philetus
 

RobE

New member
#4 isn't modally necessary.

It could be that God declared that He will fish at 6pm on the 15th of next month, and since God doesn't violate His declarations, He cannot do otherwise.

God can, but won't. Just as you posted to Lee. All of your arguments rely on the same modal fallacy. When you made the post to Lee was it a mistake? Could it be that you were in error? I don't think so. If you think so then let me know because you can't have it both ways.

Either God Can do and won't do.
Or God won't do because He can't do.

The problem you're having is that you want to impose eternal necessity where it's not warranted.

No I want to remove necessity from your proof because it's unwarranted.

I go back to my car example. At one point, you had two cars to choose from, and you were required to buy one of the two. But when I bought one, and you had to buy one of the two from the dealer, my choice made it so that you can only purchase the other car. Was that modally necessary? No. Another option was possible at one time.

But at this point are you only able to choose the remaining car, and unable to choose the car I bought? YES.

Just as John must have at least 2 children. The necessity isn't in your choice of which car to buy. It's in the 'requirement' to buy a car at all. Your point falls.

Thus, we have, at the moment of choosing, only the ability to choose one option while maintaining the truth of exhaustive definite foreknowledge, even if that option wasn't necessary. Something prior to that made the individual only able to choose the one option.

If that option wasn't necesary then the individual would only be willing despite his ableness.

Who said anything about suspending abilities? Is that the only thing that can limit what one is actually able to do?

Yes. All other discussion is about what one is willing to do. Just as God is able to do many things, but it limited by his willingness to do them. Per your statement to Lee.

Example:

God declared that He will NEVER AGAIN flood the entire earth to kill all of mankind in Genesis.

Is God now able to flood the entire earth, given that He has declared that He will never do it again?

Or is God limited by His covenant, such that He cannot?​

No He's limited by His covenant, such that He will not. Obviously He still can or there would be no need for the covenant at all.

"Will" in #3 is a verb, not a noun. This is a quirk in the English language. You're referring to your "will", which is what you choose to do. That's not what #3 says. #3 simply states what is going to occur. I can say "You will go to the store", but I'm not referring to what your will is in the matter. I'm simply making a statement of fact about the future.

There is a logical connection between will the verb and will the noun especially when discussing free will. If your will is free when you go to the store, isn't there an implication that you will go to the store willingly? Do you see the connection. If not it's of no difference because #3 doesn't speak of restricting ability only what you will do in either sense of the word. For #4 to be true there must be a limiting reason why you have been disabled in your ability: to support the 'can only do' statement; otherwise, the word 'only' makes the condition necessary without support.
 

themuzicman

Well-known member
Rob: Let's get one thing straight:

I AM NOT USING MODAL LOGIC.

Modal logic attempts to engage all of reality in a timeless fashion, and is an utter failure when you engage "before" and "after."

OK?

Muz
 

lee_merrill

New member
God does accomplish His own will AND is often thwarted (let down, dissatisfied, upset and/or saddened) by His creatures.
But both of these cannot be true, unless you say "accomplish his own will" means his will is to accomplish what he sets out to do or possibly not.

Blessings,
Lee
 

lee_merrill

New member
Modal logic attempts to engage all of reality in a timeless fashion, and is an utter failure when you engage "before" and "after."
Is it, though? Even propositional logic, being it appears a subset of modal logic, can deal with "before and after": if A is before B, then B is after A--there can be propositions and propositions of necessity etc. about time.

Blessings,
Lee
 

themuzicman

Well-known member
Is it, though? Even propositional logic, being it appears a subset of modal logic, can deal with "before and after": if A is before B, then B is after A--there can be propositions and propositions of necessity etc. about time.

Blessings,
Lee

OK, at 9am, you're told that you are required to purchase either car A or car B at 10am. At 9:30, I buy car A, and drive off, such that you cannot follow me.

At 10am, you are only able to purchase car B.

Describe how you are only able to purchase car B at 10am using modal logic.

Muz
 

Philetus

New member
OK, at 9am, you're told that you are required to purchase either car A or car B at 10am. At 9:30, I buy car A, and drive off, such that you cannot follow me.

At 10am, you are only able to purchase car B.

Describe how you are only able to purchase car B at 10am using modal logic.

Muz

I'll bet a dollar to a doughnut that Lee can to his own satisfaction.

Philetus
 
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