ARCHIVE: Free From Sin - 1 John

godrulz

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LH: We need to look into the 'fulfilled' concept. It does not mean the moral law of God (decalogue) was done away with. Murder, adultery, stealing, etc. are timeless, universal truths binding on mankind based on God's character and wisdom.
 

elohiym

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godrulz said:
Why are some of you avoiding volitional concepts like the plague (they do not automatically equate to self-righteousness or works salvation...
For the same reason you are avoiding involuntary and omissional sin concepts like the plague.

And for the record, I have not been avoiding the volitional sin concept. But where has it gotten us? You still don't seem to understand salvation, in my opinion.
 

Jacob

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Lighthouse said:
:confused:

What the hell are you on about? Or on, for that matter? And can you please give a specific verse in Romans 8?

I know that you can't have the crucifixion wihtout the resurrection. Could you please explain what I said that made you think I was misinterpreting something?
Lighthouse,

I'm talking about the verse in Romans 8 that talks about the requirement of the Law.

I don't need to focus on the other things. I will go learn myself.

Shalom,

Jacob
 
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Lighthouse

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godrulz said:
LH: We need to look into the 'fulfilled' concept. It does not mean the moral law of God (decalogue) was done away with. Murder, adultery, stealing, etc. are timeless, universal truths binding on mankind based on God's character and wisdom.
Did I say it was done away with?:dunce::duh:
 

Lighthouse

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Untellectual said:
Romans 8:4 "the requirement of the Law" NASU
That verse is saying that Christ died so that the law might be fulfilled in us. It is also saying that we could not fulfill it ourselves.
 

Jacob

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Lighthouse said:
That verse is saying that Christ died so that the law might be fulfilled in us. It is also saying that we could not fulfill it ourselves.
there are different laws... which one do you refer to in the context?

Shalom,

Jacob
 

Ecumenicist

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elected4ever said:
There are three questions that must be answered and they must be answered yes or no.

1. Do I do what I do because I am saved?

2. Do I do what I do in order to be saved?

3. Do I do what I do in order to stay saved?

4. Do I recognize that without God, without Christ's sacrifice on my behalf, I am
nothing?
5. Do I recognize that through Christ's sacrifice, I come to know how much value
God places on me?
6. Do I recognize that because God places this great value on me, I am of great value?
7. Do I do what I do out of gratitude and love for God?
8. Does my gratitude and love for God inspire humilty, or arrogance?
 

Lighthouse

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Untellectual said:
there are different laws... which one do you refer to in the context?

Shalom,

Jacob
The law that Christ fulfilled. Why are you asking stupid questions?
 

Lighthouse

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godrulz-
If this is true about Christ, why can't it be true about those in Christ:

godrulz said:
One person with two natures: 100% God and 100% man. The eternal, immortal, spirit of God cannot be killed. God is triune. Only the Word became flesh. The Father did not die. The God-Man, the Son, died because He is fully man, but not only man.
You have just shown yourself to be a hypocrite.
 

Jacob

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Lighthouse said:
The law that Christ fulfilled. Why are you asking stupid questions?
Why did you point out two different laws? Are you saying that they are the same?
Lighthouse said:
That verse is saying that Christ died so that the law might be fulfilled in us. It is also saying that we could not fulfill it ourselves.
The law of the spirit of life in Christ Jesus is one, the law of sin and of death is there, and we also have what the law could not do... and then we have the requirement of the law.

This started when you put forth that Christ has fulfilled the Law. I'm asking you what fulfilled means and which Law He has fulfilled and if you can give me a reference that says that. And also, a reference that says that we do not have to fulfill the Law.

Shalom,

Jacob
 

godrulz

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Lighthouse said:
Romans 6:14


There is a difference between sin being our master in a godless state, and a believer sinning in one act, thought, or motive. This is not a verse for sinless perfectionism, since the rest of the chapter talks about believers yielding their members to unrighteousness (cf. I John 1 and 2 and I Cor.).
 

godrulz

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Lighthouse said:
godrulz-
If this is true about Christ, why can't it be true about those in Christ:


You have just shown yourself to be a hypocrite.


Sin is volitional, not a nebulous 'flesh' nature (metaphor for sin as we yield to bodily appetites above a Spirit-controlled life). The nature of the incarnation and Christ's sinlessness is a different issue and doctrine (kenosis) than sanctification in believer's who are tempted and may or may not yield to it (Christ was tempted, yet without sin, by choice, not just by nature).

Piecing together two totally different issues and calling me a hypocrite for not being that exegetically sloppy is not impressive. :doh:

Christ also had one will despite His two natures. You are ascribing two wills to a person and giving impersonal flesh a separate will that removes our God-given free will and responsibility. Are you sure you are not a Watchman Nee groupie?
 

Lighthouse

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Untellectual said:
Why did you point out two different laws? Are you saying that they are the same?The law of the spirit of life in Christ Jesus is one, the law of sin and of death is there, and we also have what the law could not do... and then we have the requirement of the law.

This started when you put forth that Christ has fulfilled the Law. I'm asking you what fulfilled means and which Law He has fulfilled and if you can give me a reference that says that. And also, a reference that says that we do not have to fulfill the Law.

Shalom,

Jacob
When did I mention two laws? And your very own reference states that Christ fulfilled the law for us, because we couldn't.
 

Lighthouse

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godrulz said:
There is a difference between sin being our master in a godless state, and a believer sinning in one act, thought, or motive. This is not a verse for sinless perfectionism, since the rest of the chapter talks about believers yielding their members to unrighteousness (cf. I John 1 and 2 and I Cor.).
Guess what. That wasn't the subject of the post at hand! You brought up the law and its relation to Christians, I showed you its relation, according to the Bible. Do you want to deny that now, too?
 
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