Wokey McWokeface

ok doser

lifeguard at the cement pond
Six Flags decides that it doesn't want to let Target and Bud Light have all the fun



IMG_20230606_205359.jpg


 

Rhema

Active member
I trust him.
Him who? King James? Why not the Pope?
King James was Catholic, dude, the KJV does not have Divine Authorship. The translation is pretty crappy were you to learn the language.

“One man is to be given the credit for the discovery of the Koine – a German pastor named Adolf Deissmann. Even though one or two perceptive scholars had noted the true character of NT Greek as early as the middle of the nineteenth century, their statements made no impression on general opinion. Deissmann, on a visit to a friend in Marburg, found a volume of Greek papyri from Egypt, and leafing through this publication, he was struck by the similarity to the Greek of the NT. He followed up this observation with continued study, and his publications of his findings finally led to general acceptance of the position that the peculiarities of the Greek NT were, for the most part, to be explained by reference to the nonliterary Greek, the popular colloquial language of the period. He first published his results in two volumes of Bible Studies (1895, 1897) and later on in the justly popular Life from the Ancient East (1908).”​
- The Interpreter’s Dictionary of the Bible, pg. 486.​

Kind of makes you wonder why some Christians fight so fiercely for the KJV if the translators didn’t quite have a handle on the language in which it was written.

Rhema
 

Hoping

Well-known member
Banned
Paul.
King James? Why not the Pope?
King James was Catholic, dude, the KJV does not have Divine Authorship. The translation is pretty crappy were you to learn the language.

“One man is to be given the credit for the discovery of the Koine – a German pastor named Adolf Deissmann. Even though one or two perceptive scholars had noted the true character of NT Greek as early as the middle of the nineteenth century, their statements made no impression on general opinion. Deissmann, on a visit to a friend in Marburg, found a volume of Greek papyri from Egypt, and leafing through this publication, he was struck by the similarity to the Greek of the NT. He followed up this observation with continued study, and his publications of his findings finally led to general acceptance of the position that the peculiarities of the Greek NT were, for the most part, to be explained by reference to the nonliterary Greek, the popular colloquial language of the period. He first published his results in two volumes of Bible Studies (1895, 1897) and later on in the justly popular Life from the Ancient East (1908).”​
- The Interpreter’s Dictionary of the Bible, pg. 486.​

Kind of makes you wonder why some Christians fight so fiercely for the KJV if the translators didn’t quite have a handle on the language in which it was written.

Rhema
From what I have seen of other versions of the KJV of the bible, the KJV is the only one that is willing to use the word "perfect", where others substitute a word that accommodates sin.
 

Rhema

Active member
Well then that's quite a bit more clear. Thank you.

From what I have seen of other versions of the KJV of the bible, the KJV is the only one that is willing to use the word "perfect", where others substitute a word that accommodates sin.
Doesn't matter; ... you're still trusting in the translation committee, not Paul. And Paul wrote in the Koine dialect of Greek. A dialect that the translators of the KVJ DID NOT KNOW ABOUT. Period.

Now I think you're trusting more in your own ideas about what you want Paul to say. But remember the conversation started over this verse -
I'll stick with Paul in 1 Tim 6:10..."For the love of money is the root of all evil: which while some coveted after, they have erred from the faith, and pierced themselves through with many sorrows."
So where is the word "perfect"?
( It isn't there....)
Did you go and twitch off into some other point that we have not yet discussed?
There are twenty two verses where the KJV has Paul using the English word 'Perfect'....
At this point I'm not going to play mind reader, and your going to have to respect yourself by crafting a post that clearly explains what you mean.


But if you (as you say) trust Paul, then you have no choice but to trust this verse:

1 Tim 6:10 "ριζα γαρ παντων των κακων εστιν η φιλαργυρια ης τινες ορεγομενοι απεπλανηθησαν απο της πιστεως και εαυτους περιεπειραν οδυναις πολλαις."​

And what the above says is not what you read in the KJV.

Rhema
 

JudgeRightly

裁判官が正しく判断する
Staff member
Administrator
Super Moderator
Gold Subscriber
Well then that's quite a bit more clear. Thank you.


Doesn't matter; ... you're still trusting in the translation committee, not Paul. And Paul wrote in the Koine dialect of Greek. A dialect that the translators of the KVJ DID NOT KNOW ABOUT. Period.

Now I think you're trusting more in your own ideas about what you want Paul to say. But remember the conversation started over this verse -

So where is the word "perfect"?
( It isn't there....)
Did you go and twitch off into some other point that we have not yet discussed?
There are twenty two verses where the KJV has Paul using the English word 'Perfect'....
At this point I'm not going to play mind reader, and your going to have to respect yourself by crafting a post that clearly explains what you mean.


But if you (as you say) trust Paul, then you have no choice but to trust this verse:

1 Tim 6:10 "ριζα γαρ παντων των κακων εστιν η φιλαργυρια ης τινες ορεγομενοι απεπλανηθησαν απο της πιστεως και εαυτους περιεπειραν οδυναις πολλαις."​

And what the above says is not what you read in the KJV.

Rhema

Please move this discussion to a new thread, thank you.
 
Top