turbosixx
New member
If you'll slow down and think on it a moment, you'll note I have been basing my assertions on more than one passage or two.
Do yourself a favor and do likewise as to those two passages you just asserted what you have about.
And do what the Lord did in Luke 24, and what the Spirit did through Peter - allow the OT to interpret intended sense of those two NT passages you have just cited in support of you off-base assertion.
Start by asking why the Lord said "Thus it behooved... and that repentance," etc., in Luke 24.
A clue - He was obviously referring to OT references as to the order of how their commission was to expand out to the nations from Jerusalem.
Try Mark 7:27's "first." Or Acts 3: 26's "first."
For that matter; why "beginning at Jerusalem?"
Let's cheat - let's actually rely on Scripture over our own notions - try Isaiah 2:1-5, or Isaiah 66.
I've been trying to understand what you and JW are saying. I have been studying the bible for years and this mad stuff is new to me and is just not adding up. All I rely on is scripture, all I know is what I read.
Yes, the gospel is for the Jew first. Just because it was first for them doesn't mean it's a different gospel than what Paul proclaimed. It's the same gospel, just a different audience. Paul proclaimed it to Jews also and Peter was the first to proclaim it to Gentiles.