Find a better translation.It is singular.
I have to time to do both.
It is singular.
ECT WHEN WAS PETER SAVED BY LAW OR GRACE ??
- Thread starter DAN P
- Start date
It is singular.
Hi and you are off the radar !!
Paul was saved in Acts 9:6 when Paul said , LORD what do you wish me to do !!
When Paul said the word KURIOS ?LORD Paul was saved , WHAT is the proof ?
1 Cor 12:3 NO one calls Jesus LORD EXCEPT by the Holy Spirit !!
There are 3 verbs in the PRESENT TENSE but the last verb is in the AORIST TENSE which points back to Acts 9:6 , and this means that Paul had the HOLY SPIRIT in Acts 9:6 and in Acts 9:17 does NOT mean water
as it reads " has sent me so that you might recover sight and mifgt be FULL OF HOLY SPIRIT ~~
Notice that it does not say " be full of THE HOLY SPIRIT " because the Greek ARTICLE ( THE ) is not in the Greek text !!
Becuase the Greek ARTICLE ( THE ) is not used it means to BE FULL OF HOLY SPIRIT POWER and Not Water Baptism !!
dan p
God's Truth
New member
Don't believe the Truth then.
Hi and I feel that you have no recourse , DO YOU !!
You have no answer NOR can you debunk what I wrote !!~
Nor can you explain how you were saved , can you ??
Many people are saved with out knowing the PATTERN that Paul wrote about in 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 and reject Eph 2:8 and also Acts 16:14 and Water Baptism has BLINDED YOUR EYES !!
Another down FALL is that you will never answer what 2 Cor 3:13-17 really means !!
dan p
Matthew 7:22 Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works?
Matthew 16:22 Then Peter took him, and began to rebuke him, saying, Be it far from thee, Lord: this shall not be unto thee. 16:23 But he turned, and said unto Peter, Get thee behind me, Satan: thou art an offence unto me: for thou savourest not the things that be of God, but those that be of men.
Passages like those and the whole of I Cor. 12, should indicate that clearly: the following passage is referring to something else...
1 Corinthians 12:3 Wherefore I give you to understand, that no man speaking by the Spirit of God calleth Jesus accursed: and that no man can say that Jesus is the Lord, but by the Holy Ghost.
Rom. 5:8
Acts 27:11,12
Matthew 16:22 Then Peter took him, and began to rebuke him, saying, Be it far from thee, Lord: this shall not be unto thee. 16:23 But he turned, and said unto Peter, Get thee behind me, Satan: thou art an offence unto me: for thou savourest not the things that be of God, but those that be of men.
Passages like those and the whole of I Cor. 12, should indicate that clearly: the following passage is referring to something else...
1 Corinthians 12:3 Wherefore I give you to understand, that no man speaking by the Spirit of God calleth Jesus accursed: and that no man can say that Jesus is the Lord, but by the Holy Ghost.
Rom. 5:8
Acts 27:11,12
Hi and when Paul said LORD , Paul was saying YOU ARE MY LORD , like in Rom 10:9 , that you should CONFESS that Jesus is LORD is very pertinent !!
So Paul was given the HOLY Spirit as recorded in 1 Cor 12:3 is inescapable !!
dan p
Nope.
He was responding as a Jew in the manner they are often depicted responding in the OT; upon their encounter with an angel of the Lord.
They address such as "Lord."
At which point, in Paul's case there, Christ identified Himself as more than merely an angel of the Lord: Their Lord Jesus Himself.
But read into a thing how you will...for read into it...you will.
Rom. 5:8
Acts 17:11,12.
Hi and just love what you say , NOTHING !!
The Greek word LORD / KURIOS can also be translated by the following words , TEACHER , MASTER , LORD , SIR !!
dan p
Wick Stick
Well-known member
Your overall point may be right, but your vocabulary is not.
"World" in your NT is a translation of Greek "kosmos," which usually refers to the existing powers of government, rather than any nation(s).
I know it's kosmos, but you have no idea what cosmos represents in the mind of the Holy Spirit in John's writings.
Wick Stick
Well-known member
I do not believe you are correct.
And Aaron shall bring the goat upon which the LORD'S lot fell, and offer him for a sin offering. But the goat, on which the lot fell to be the scapegoat, shall be presented alive before the LORD, to make an atonement with him, and to let him go for a scapegoat into the wilderness. (Leviticus 16)
The one that gets killed is the sin offering. The scapegoat is for atonement.
Wick Stick
Well-known member
Silly me! I just assumed it was the standard meaning of the word.
Please explain to me how in this case it meant something different than every other time it was used. :baby:
No. Because I don't like your attitude.
Wick Stick
Well-known member
Fair enough!
I tend to get a little sarcastic when people try to tell me that the word on page 22 means something different than the same word on page 21.
oatmeal
Well-known member
The age of grace began on the day of Pentecost.
Jesus Christ told them to wait for the promise of the Father, to be endued with power from on high, to be baptized in Holy Spirit.
Acts 1:4-5, Luke 24:49
Jesus Christ fulfilled the law, thus allowing for a new administration to be initiated. What was that that followed after the fulfillment of the law? The age of grace, where we are no longer under the law for righteousness.
The apostles understood that Jesus is lord and that God raised him from the dead before the day of Pentecost, they were ready to fulfill the requirements to receive the gift of salvation as the later written book of Romans verifies.
Certainly it was not news to Peter that Jesus is lord and the God raised him from the dead.
God's Truth
New member
Revelation 22:11 Let the one who does wrong continue to do wrong; let the vile person continue to be vile; let the one who does right continue to do right; and let the holy person continue to be holy."
Context and nuance are two words that immediately spring to mind.
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
The sins are placed on the scapegoat and he "taketh them away" into the wilderness. Keep reading.
Hi and I do not see the Greek word GRACE / CHARIS in Acts 2 :17 and all the verbs in that verse are in the Greek FUTURE TENSE , so what does LAST DAYS means in verse 17 ??
dan p
Wick Stick
Well-known member
I am mistaken. You are correct.
Perhaps you can explain something for me?
My understanding of the sacrificial system is that it was essentially a sin-transference system. Put the sin on animal. Kill animal. Priests eat roasted animals, thereby accumulate sins. The priests repeat the process in turns, thereby transferring all sin to the High Priest. High Priest makes annual intercession directly with God. Entire system pre-figures Jesus sacrifice.
But... Jesus clearly is not pre-figured by the scapegoat. So who's the scapegoat? John the Baptist? He's got a wilderness connection, I guess. Judas, perhaps? He was given over to Satan.
Your thoughts?